Regarding skin care for this area, you might want to try heavier ointments—think Aquaphor or even a simple calendula salve. There are also specialized creams containing zinc and copper, such as Desitin, which is specifically formulated for this kind of issue (though it does come with a higher price tag), or perhaps a standard Sudocrem barrier cream.
What you’re describing sounds most like perianal dermatitis—essentially skin inflammation in that area.
There are several ways this happens. It could be simple irritation, or perhaps a fungal infection—which often crops up when your immune system is down, if you've been eating too many carbs, or following a course of antibiotics. Hemorrhoids are another possibility, among others.
It would be wise to check in with your primary care physician. A quick exam should determine if you need any follow-up testing.
In the meantime, my advice is to skip the harsh soaps or body washes in that area. Stick to oil-based cleansers instead, and apply a gentle cream designed for sensitive skin after washing.
Roger Smith64 said:vividsailor7, what does it actually mean when something isn't on the FDA's approved list?
The FDA handles everything: they greenlight new drugs for the market, vet them for safety and efficacy, issue manufacturing licenses to producers, and authorize the import and export of pharmaceuticals. That’s the breakdown straight from their official site. Here.).
Regarding the use of this medication for treating Raynaud's phenomenon, there were several studies back in the late eighties and throughout the nineties suggesting its potential. Some even went as far as asking, "Could this be that new revolutionary drug?"
As time moves on, more recent studies and research papers have largely moved away from focusing on it. You might see occasional mentions regarding its potential application for mild cases, but calcium channel blockers like nifedipine remain the standard. Usually, though, they aren't even the first line of defense; they typically come into play only after non-pharmacological approaches—like staying out of the cold, managing stress, or keeping warm—have failed to do the trick.
The drug in question—Pentoxifylline—is currently indicated for treating intermittent claudication. Essentially, we're talking about those muscle cramps triggered by atherosclerotic changes in the arteries of the limbs.
Will it work for you? I can't say for certain. But I'm certainly pulling for it.
It looks like you're dealing with a case of non-specific urethritis, which explains why you were prescribed antibiotics.
During treatment, you really ought to abstain from sexual activity. If that isn't an option, please use protection (condoms). Your partner should also make an appointment with her gynecologist.
Scientific research—including a specific study out of Canada—confirms that boys and adolescents who smoke end up significantly shorter than their non-smoking peers. The takeaway is straightforward: smoking stunts growth.
Consider this your answer. We don't support smoking here on Healthline, and our goal is to encourage young people, especially children, to never start—and if they already have, to quit as soon as possible.
I'm closing this thread. Since you've received the answer to your question, there's no reason to keep it active on Healthline.
Dear , Regarding the first part of your question: yes. Body weight definitely impacts your cycle. It’s something worth addressing. You should also schedule some hormone panels—specifically looking at thyroid function and reproductive hormones.
As for the frequent urination, that could point toward a urinary tract infection. I'd suggest getting a urinalysis and a biochemical screening via a test strip; if needed, follow up with a urine culture. In my view, the increased frequency and the lighter periods are likely unrelated issues.
Regardless, you really ought to see a gynecologist for an exam and some baseline testing to determine if oral contraceptives are even a viable option for you.
Rachel Torres said:Can you actually tell the difference between a period and vaginal bleeding during early pregnancy?
Dear Carl Thompson6,
I’m no OB-GYN, but I’ll offer my take.
There are certain markers that distinguish early pregnancy bleeding from a standard period. For instance, what some call a "false period" usually lasts less time, is lighter, often presents as brownish spotting, and occurs right around when you'd expect your cycle.
That said, it is entirely possible for early pregnancy bleeding to mimic a regular period quite closely.
Generally speaking, if the bleeding is shorter or lighter than your usual pattern—and hits at the expected time—it might be that "false period" scenario.
But again, since they can look identical, you won't have a definitive answer without a professional exam from your doctor.
To get a clearer picture of your lab results, we need you to follow the instructions laid out in the initial post. Please take a moment to review that first post, then come back with the specific details requested. Once you do, either myself or other colleagues can provide an explanation.
Plastic surgeons occasionally utilize laser treatments, which is why I included them in my inquiry. In my view, you ought to seek a second opinion. There might be ways to soften the appearance of the lesion to reach a more satisfactory result. After all, an aesthetic concern is still a valid concern.
At its core, a significant portion of dermatology deals with aesthetic issues anyway.
Morgan Vaughn10, have you seen a surgeon lately about your symptoms? Did they mention if you meet the criteria for surgery?
electricwalker35 said:Has anyone here actually dealt with getting a large, superficial hemangioma removed? I was told it really should have been taken care of back when I was a "younger age"—like, infant stage—probably just because of how much surface area it covers, making it way easier to treat then. But now? If it isn’t causing any actual issues and we're just talking about purely aesthetic stuff... maybe it's better to just leave it alone. -.-
Which specialist did you consult, electricwalker35? I don't mean names, just the field—dermatologist, plastic surgeon, or someone else?
Finding epithelial cells in your urine isn't clinically significant. A high count usually just means the sample was contaminated—essentially, it wasn't collected cleanly.
Your results show some leukocytes, but honestly, it doesn't look like a definitive urinary tract infection.
It's worth noting that the symptoms you're describing might not actually be tied to a UTI. Gynecological issues, such as vaginal infections or vaginitis, could also be the culprit.
If your symptoms persist, I'd suggest scheduling a gynecological exam to rule out any underlying infections that might be causing this discomfort.
The post regarding indications for a pituitary MRI, methods for treating microadenomas, and wanderingcobra76's response have been moved to the thread Pituitary Tumor.
The psychological and physical requirements for serving as a military pilot—and other roles—are laid out in the Department of Defense medical standards for military service.
According to those regulations, and I'm quoting directly here: "When evaluating candidates in civilian-military pilot training programs, any identified refractive error or disorders of binocular or color vision shall be considered a limiting factor, resulting in a rating of 1."
My interpretation is straightforward: all candidates for military pilot positions must maintain perfect visual acuity without the aid of glasses or contact lenses.
That is how I read the manual. However, one should verify if there have been any recent amendments or updates to these standards.
For various other branches of service, such vision requirements shouldn't be disqualifying—much like they aren't for commercial airline pilots.
Bradley Brooks2 said:I am going through the exact same thing—literally everything is identical. I have no idea what to do, and I'm terrified it might be cancer. ://🙂🙂
Bradley Brooks2,
The first move is simple: call your primary care physician and have them take a look. For many guys going through puberty, breast tissue enlargement is actually quite common, and it often starts off asymmetrical. The good news? In most cases, it settles down before you reach adulthood.
That said, any kind of nipple discharge isn't standard.
Don't jump straight to the worst-case scenario; male breast cancer is incredibly rare and typically affects older men.
Still, you can't be too careful. Get it checked out by your doctor. If there's significant swelling or if the discharge persists, they'll likely run some hormone panels to figure out the underlying cause.
Is this amylase reading "U - AMS 531 ( I also noticed my creatinine is slightly low, and there's an increased amount of squamous epithelial cells in my urine.
Hello,
A slightly low creatinine level, especially one as subtle as yours, likely carries no clinical significance. Similarly, the presence of epithelial cells in the urine isn't usually a cause for concern.
Yes, that notation refers to your urinary amylase level; it is somewhat elevated, though not by much. Are you experiencing any symptoms, such as abdominal pain? I ask because elevated urinary amylase can occasionally be linked to gallstones, biliary sludge, or certain digestive inflammations.
Was serum amylase tested as well? It seems unusual for a doctor to order only the urinary test without checking the blood levels.
Given your suspicion regarding Gilbert syndrome, was conjugated (direct) bilirubin ever checked (not necessarily this time, but perhaps previously)?
Dennis Barnes2 said:We aren't talking about a woman here—first pregnancy, currently 7-8 weeks along, 22 years old, no issues reported until now.
You’ve updated your initial response, which makes things much clearer.
Based on the facts, this finding (high IgG avidity) during this specific window (7-8 weeks gestation) could suggest the infection occurred prior to conception. If that's the case, it's good news; it would mean the risk to the fetus is minimal (there is essentially only one such case documented in medical literature).
However, interpreting this result requires extreme caution, so I want to be very clear about my limitations here. The exact week of pregnancy is the deciding factor; once you pass the second month, a result like this loses its reliability, and pinpointing the exact duration of pregnancy isn't always possible. As I mentioned before, more testing is required—specifically, at least two separate samples taken 2-3 weeks apart.
More tests will likely be necessary to reach a definitive conclusion.
Olivia Anderson10 said:Brain MRI results: Standard three-plane imaging techniques show normal organization of gyri and sulci, with a healthy relationship between gray and white matter. No signs of ischemic lesions or hemorrhage were found in the brain parenchyma. There are no focal expansive processes. FLAIR sequences show no evidence of demyelinating lesions. The ventricular system is appropriately positioned and sized. The optic nerve chiasm, cavernous sinuses, pontocerebellar angles, and craniocervical junction appear morphologically normal. Within the pituitary gland, there is a discrete elevated signal on T1 and T2 sequences, measuring up to 3 mm, which is primarily suspicious for a pituitary adenoma. Endocrine evaluation and a dedicated pituitary MRI are recommended. Here is the report, vividsailor7. I need your take on this pituitary adenoma. Is it a tumor, and could it be causing my issues? As a reminder, my symptoms involve abnormal, uncontrolled jerking of my body and limbs out of nowhere. Or is this just an incidental finding from the scan, and what does it actually mean for my health?
Hello,
I missed your post. While we wait for vividsailor7—whom you addressed—to weigh in, I’ll offer my own thoughts on these findings (I have reviewed some of your previous inquiries).
Given the symptoms you described in your earlier posts, this MRI finding—which points toward a microadenoma since it's under 10 mm—doesn't strike me as a likely culprit for your symptoms.
That said, one should certainly wait for the follow-up results, both endocrine and radiological, before reaching a final conclusion.
In medical literature, pituitary adenomas are occasionally cited as potential triggers for epileptiform seizures, though this usually involves much larger tumors that press against the temporal lobe. Additionally, larger tumors can "crush" healthy pituitary tissue, leading to hormone deficiencies—including ACTH. This could theoretically cause fluctuations or drops in blood glucose, which might trigger a seizure, but that is typically observed in children rather than adults.
There is another possibility where an adenoma might link to certain types of epileptiform seizures, though this is more speculative and theoretical. In some types of pituitary adenomas, there is an overproduction of a specific hormone called ACTH, which regulates the adrenal glands. This hormone drives cortisol production; if cortisol levels spike, it could theoretically provoke seizures by acting on specific receptors in the brain. One study noted seizures in patients with elevated serum ACTH and high 24-hour urinary cortisol; once those levels were normalized through treatment, the seizures ceased.
However, these are largely speculations and rare individual cases. Generally speaking, I suspect this finding is likely an incidental discovery made while investigating the involuntary movements.
Forgive me, I’m not entirely sure I followed: are we talking about a newborn's lab results? How old is this baby, and are they showing any symptoms? Specifically, why was toxoplasmosis serology ordered for them? Also, what exactly is meant by "22 years old"?