Posts by darkwalker12

I don't know about you guys, but I always find this time of year a little weird. We’re all itching to get back into the heavy stuff, but the actual matches right now feel like glorified exhibitions. It’s all fitness drills disguised as competitive games and half-hearted tackles.

I remember back in high school, we used to play these summer scrimmages where nobody actually cared about the score, just about getting enough sweat in before the real season started. It’s hard to get emotionally invested when you know the intensity isn't quite there yet. It's like waiting for a storm to break while it's just drizzling outside.

That being said, I suppose it's the only way to see how the new signings are settling in without the crushing pressure of league points on the line. Do you guys actually watch these early friendlies, or do you just wait until the official kickoff to start paying attention?

Need some advice here. This is critical...
So, here’s the situation. On July 11, 2016, we issued an invoice for a down payment. It was paid and recorded that same day. A few days later, we sold them goods, and we aren't settling the accounts until September. We’re doing a full offset—balancing out services rendered against some invoices they sent us. But there’s a catch: this offset document doesn't explicitly state that the initial down payment is being deducted. To fix this, we issued a credit memo for that down payment. Since they still owe us money from the overall settlement, they just subtracted the down payment amount from their final payout to us. Now our accountant has processed that credit memo, and the IRS is breathing down our necks. They want us to pay the VAT difference because we essentially "returned" the money, yet we have zero paperwork from the client proving a refund was ever issued. How? We didn't send cash back; we just took a smaller check at the end of the deal. Is there any way to prove to the IRS that the funds were effectively returned through this deduction when no actual wire transfer occurred?
Any help would be appreciated.

Hey everyone, I need some help here.
My husband runs an agricultural business in the States and he's set up as a sole proprietor on a cash basis for tax purposes.
He went over to Germany recently and bought some tractor parts using cash, but now his accountant is refusing to recognize the receipts because they claim everything has to be paid via bank transfer or check.
Has anyone dealt with this before? Does anyone actually know what the legal requirement is here? 🤷
Thanks in advance to anyone who can weigh in!