Maria Kern71 said:Glad I could help even just a little bit. 🙂 Honestly, you have to dig through so much stuff and study it constantly; my head was spinning just trying to find answers for myself. 🤣 Not sure where you're based, but if you're in the USA, I can send you a private message with someone I use. 🙂
Maria Kern71 said:It’s just genetic typing. It shows predispositions, nothing more. You might have one marker, two, or none at all. HLA A2—linked to recurrent miscarriages HLA-A10-Oralan—oral fibrosis HLA-B15-possible for Spondyloarthritis HLA-DRB1 HLA-DRB1 4—associated with rheumatoid arthritis and lupus HLA-DRB1 11—systemic scleroderma
If I were you, I'd go see a rheumatologist. Better to let a doctor handle the commentary. I went through the same thing; I didn't understand any of this at first either.🤣
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Thank you so much! You have no idea how much this helps. I've been searching the internet for explanations like this for ages and found nothing. Thanks, really. 🙏 Yeah. Not sure why I haven't switched doctors after all these years, but it's definitely time to say goodbye.
About two years back, I had this testing done because of bone pain and concerns about rheumatoid arthritis or something similar...
HLA-A 2 10
HLA-B 15 ND
method: CDC(serological)
__________________________
HLA-C* NT NT
HLA-DRB1* 04 11
HLA-DQB1* NT NT
Method: PCR-SSO/SSP (molecular)
My GP told me everything looked fine so I didn't bother following up with a rheumatologist The pain hasn't gone away, but I've just been ignoring it Now, though, I'm starting to suspect celiac disease—or maybe some other inflammatory bowel issue—given some other symptoms I'm having Does anyone know if there's anything in these results that could point toward celiac, Crohn's, or anything like that? I honestly have no idea how to read this report Thanks!
Here’s my lab work (it's pretty old now, from about two years ago)
Sample type: peripheral blood (Doctors were looking into autoimmune stuff—RA, Sjögren's, SAPHO, maybe MS)
HLA-A 2 10
HLA-B 15 ND
Method: CDC (serological)
__________________________
HLA-C* NT NT
HLA-DRB1* 04 11
HLA-DQB1* NT NT
Method: PCR-SSO/SSP (molecular)
My symptoms eased up, so I just gave up on everything. I was just spinning my wheels between the results and the doctors. Now, though, I'm starting to link my symptoms back to SAPHO syndrome—which the rheumatologist suspected—so I started digging online. Found this:
Some doctors believe that SAPHO syndrome is caused by the same autoimmune processes that cause ulcerative colitis, a severe inflammatory disease of the bowel. There is a specific blood marker for SAPHO syndrome called HLA-B27, which appears in the bloodstream in people who get SAPHO syndrome, ulcerative colitis, ankylosing spondylitis, and another condition that causes problems in both the skin and joints, psoriatic arthritis.
The HLA-B27 isn't mentioned in my results. Does that mean they didn't test for it, or they just didn't find it? I'm completely lost here.
I need some advice. I just got back from seeing my primary care physician. I told her I think I’ve developed hemorrhoids—though I suspect it might be a fissure too, but I didn't dare say it out loud. I hate that feeling when you suggest a diagnosis and they act like you're being arrogant. She did a quick check for a few seconds and just said, "Yeah, but they're small... it's nothing." Well, I wouldn't exactly call them small, but maybe that's just subjective. She gave me some ointment and told me to cut out bread and eat more vegetables. I told her I haven't touched bread in a year and veggies make up 80% of my diet, yet I'm still dealing with constipation and hard stools. Her response? "If you start bleeding, don't panic immediately... it's all quite normal." Really? Then why does everything I read online says you need to react right away? Why shouldn't I wait until they reach stage 3 or 4?
I pointed out that I can't fix this on my own. She knows I've been coming to her for years for stomach and intestinal pain, and she just keeps ignoring it. After about four years of intense abdominal pain, I finally had a gastroscopy. They found H. pylori and gastritis. I finished the treatment, changed my diet, and I feel much better now. But when I think about how much I suffered all those years 😢 I really don't want this to follow the same pattern. Is there anything I can do about this myself?
Every time I Google it, I end up on diverticulosis. I'm starting to wonder if that's actually what's going on, since the symptoms and stool consistency match perfectly.
Maria Fisher46 said:There isn't much to go on with these results. Your CRP is only slightly elevated, and since there's no differential blood count, we can't tell which cells are actually up—neutrophils or lymphocytes. You'll need a CBC and an ESR test. If the sedimentation rate is high, it might point toward an inflammatory rheumatic disease, including the one you mentioned. Either way, there’s clearly some inflammation happening, but this specific report doesn't show us what kind.
"Ear infection" is a pretty vague term here. There are different types—outer ear infections versus middle ear infections, for starters. If you're dealing with frequent outer ear issues alongside these labs, you should see an ENT specialist to look into local treatments, like cleaning out the canal or applying topical meds if needed. In that scenario, oral antibiotics shouldn't even be on the table.
Thanks. I went ahead and scheduled an appointment with an ENT. I've had outer ear infections before with discharge, where my ear just plugs up and hurts like hell. It's happened to one ear a few times, but this last time it was both. Honestly, I'm dreading the next one because that pain is just brutal.
I deal with frequent ear infections. I don't have one right now, but I just went in to get swabs taken from both ears.
The results for both ears say:
No polymorphonuclear White Blood Cells were found, though epithelial cells were present.
Specifically for the left ear: Saprofitic bacteria.
And for the right: Staphylococcus aureus. Resistant to penicillin and amoxicillin, but sensitive to ciprofloxacin, sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim, oxacillin, and cefazolin.
Not sure if this is the right place for this, but if anyone can make sense of these results, I’d really appreciate the help.
My grandmother had breast cancer surgery back in 1968. They removed the entire breast then, and she went through chemo. In 2008, she had surgery for a thyroid tumor. The thyroid was removed, and she took iodine treatments.
About a month ago, she underwent surgery on her other breast—they had to remove the whole thing due to a tumor. She was born in 1948. She’s incredibly anxious right now because of these findings, and she still has to wait two weeks to see the oncologist. Could someone help me interpret this? We just need some information to hold onto before the actual appointment and deciding on treatment.
Here are the results:
CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS: Ca mammae dex Post-op status for right breast CDI (7/2017) (3406/17, pT1c, pNx, Luminal B, HER2 negative Post-op status for thyroid surgery due to papillary carcinoma (2008) Post-op status for left breast neoplasm (1986) Material type: consultation with immunohistochemical analysis Specimen: 1. three paraffin blocks no. 3700/17 (label I E), right breast with secondary tumor, 2. right axilla with lymph nodes __________________________________________________ _________ PATHOLOGICAL DESCRIPTION: 1. The specimen consists of three paraffin blocks, labeled IE (pathology lab, biopsy), received for biopsy and additional immunohistochemical processing. Microscopic examination shows a breast measuring 17:15.6 cm, with an area partially covered by skin measuring 19:9.5 cm. Three lesions, 0.5–0.8 cm in diameter, were found on the skin surface, which histologically correspond to hemangiomas. At 3.5 cm from one resection margin, there is an old postoperative scar measuring 4.5 cm. On a cross-section of the breast, beneath the scar, there is a hollow formation 3.5 cm in diameter filled with bloody content. Histologically, this is a blood-filled pseudocyst accompanied by an extensive foreign body-type inflammatory reaction. Surrounding this hollow area is a yellowish, firmer region 6.5 cm in diameter, which histologically corresponds to fat necrosis. Located 0.3 cm from the second resection margin, opposite the old scar, is a nodule 0.8 cm in diameter. Histologically, this is a tumor composed of pseudo-glandular formations, strands, and solid clusters of atypical epithelial cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and occasionally prominent nucleoli, with the presence of desmoplastic stroma. No mitosis was observed in 10 high-power fields of the tumor. There is no lymphangioinvasion. Immunohistochemically, the tumor cells are positive for Estrogen (95% of tumor cells) and Progesterone (30% of tumor cells). HER2 is 0 (negative). Ki-67 is 5%.
Molecular carcinoma type, St. Gallen, 2013, Luminal A
2. Fatty tissue specimen, measuring 9.5:7:6. A total of 18 lymph nodes, ranging from 0.4–1.2 cm, were found and appeared normal.
My grandmother was just diagnosed with malignant breast cancer. Is there a specific thread here where I can ask someone to help make sense of her test results? We're stuck waiting two weeks for her appointment with the oncologist, and the anxiety is just eating us alive...
Maria Fisher46 said:The results suggest a possible genetic predisposition for rheumatoid arthritis.
I’ve covered this more in previous posts within this thread:
Are you experiencing any eye issues? (There's an H35 note, which is the ICD-10 code for "other retinal diseases").
Yeah, they're treating me under that diagnosis. That's how the workup started. It all kicked off when I ended up in the ER—for about five days prior, I had this constant sensation like something was stuck in my eye, even though I couldn't see anything. It was incredibly irritating. Before that, for maybe two or three months, my eyes were constantly red, and there were moments where my vision would just blur out, like looking through frosted glass. An ophthalmologist finally did a full exam and actually listened to everything my GP has been ignoring for the last couple of years: joint and bone pain, terrible abdominal pain (especially after eating), chronic fatigue, feeling cold, strange itching, and acne that's persisted for about 15 years despite every treatment imaginable. I really do have a whole string of symptoms. My eyes are still dry and red, so I'm using drops to manage it, and that "something in my eye" feeling has faded about 90% thanks to the eye drops. I still occasionally see a tiny black spot in my field of vision. I had an MRI of my brain; they found a cyst and some other changes... I'm taking those results to a neurologist this week. Thanks. I was curious about this. I thought maybe they'd find something regarding my stomach pains too, but maybe they weren't looking for that or it isn't part of this specific screening... Thanks again, you've been a huge help!
On my lab results, next to CH50, there's this little note that says "0.2" The reference range is listed as 0.2-0.5 being normal, 0.7 slightly low, 0.9 low, and anything over 0.9 is significantly low
My CH50 doesn't show a specific number, just "normal."
Does that little note actually mean anything? Or am I looking at a great result because it's sitting right on the bottom edge?😁 thanks.
Thanks in advance for any quick replies (I'm worried)...
Anyone know what this means?
I also got my thyroid results back today. anti-tg 3.1 (ref. less than 4.11) anti-TPO less than 0.50 (ref. less than 5.61) method: cmia The first value seems fine, but the second one looks low. Does that actually matter? Anyone know? Thanks.
Maria Fisher46 said:So here's the deal: since you've already been exposed to all those triggers and built up immunity—meaning you've already dealt with them—you're in the clear. We're talking EBV, the main culprit for mono; CMV, the second most common cause; plus herpes simplex, chickenpox, and roseola. None of those viruses are linked to what you're feeling right now. That's a certainty.
EBV VCA IgG POSITIVE 112.0 U/ml (negative is less than 15) EBNA IgG POSITIVE 203.0 U/ml (negative is less than 5) CMV IgG POSITIVE 86.3 U/ml (negative is less than 12) HSV 1 IgG POSITIVE VZV IgG POSITIVE 30 VE (negative is less than 9) HHV 6 IgG POSITIVE 39 (negative is less than 9)
Can someone help me make sense of these results? Everything else came back negative... Thanks!
Does a result like that rule out autoimmune or rheumatological issues? Not necessarily. So, the answer to your second question is no.
For accurate hormone levels—excluding progesterone—it’s better to test on day three of your cycle rather than day twenty-one.
The labs suggest impaired fasting glucose tolerance. This is often labeled prediabetes, which means there's an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes down the road. You should get an HbA1c, a full lipid panel (HDL, LDL, triglycerides), routine biochemistry, a urinalysis (checking for protein), and see a doctor. They'll need to check your blood pressure, BMI, waist-to-hip ratio, and look into any family history of diabetes.
Only then can you build a solid strategy for treatment and monitoring. Usually, that involves weight management, staying active, and dietary changes—maybe adding medication if hypertension, dyslipidemia, or oral hypoglycemics become necessary.
Leukogram comment at the end: no significant changes in the count or morphology of all blood cells. On paper, everything looks fine. But this wasn't just a routine check—it was ordered because we're looking into potential immune or rheumatological issues. Dealing with a bunch of symptoms here... Is there anything telling in these numbers regarding that specific field? Thanks.