Aaron Young85 said:Alright, thanks a ton. So, basically, this is a taxable transaction at the 25% sales tax rate and it doesn't go into the zero-rated category. But here’s the kicker—after their accountant practically bled me dry insisting that sales tax had to be on the invoices, now the procurement team is breathing down my neck asking how the hell there's sales tax on them in the first place. Their big question is whether they actually need to register for some kind of VAT refund process here in the US??? We don't really deal with any of that stuff, right?
On top of all that, since I'm still pretty much the rookie accountant here, I noticed the previous guy was entering these exact same invoices (the ones with the sales tax included) into the system as tax-free exports to other US states. So, what am I supposed to do with that mess?
Look... I have no clue what the former accountant was doing. But...
If those goods aren't actually leaving the US, they don't meet the requirements under Section 41, so you have to charge sales tax..
Whether they decide to register or not isn't your problem..
You are handling a domestic US sale where you bill the customer..
The responsibility to collect the tax lies with you..
If they want a refund, they can register themselves.. That's their call based on their own math..
Honestly, I have no idea why invoices for goods that stayed within the US were being issued without sales tax in the first place
Our state laws might vary slightly, but we still follow the standard federal guidelines and general principles
Regarding your second point... just cite the specific code that allows for the non-taxable status..
We list it as reverse charge.. citing Section
But if they cited an exemption clause, then it's treated as an interstate acquisition
Not sure if that helps, but that's how my auditors handled it..
Maybe some other American accountants can weigh in