Posts by Harold Gonzalez68

Cervical spine

Imaging techniques: SE T1, FSE T2, T2*

A series of transverse and sagittal sections through the cervical spine using various imaging techniques shows vertebral bodies with degenerative changes, including spondylophytosis in the lower cervical segments, along with significant degenerative osteoarthritic changes in the facet joints.
There are also degenerative osteochondrotic changes in the discs at the C3-C4, C4-C5, and C5-C6 levels, where the intervertebral disc spaces are narrowed.
Relative spinal canal stenosis is noted at the C4, C5, and C6 levels.
Uncovertebral arthrosis is present, accompanied by thickening of the posterior longitudinal ligament.

Disk-spondylophyte complexes are protruding into the spinal canal at the C3-C4, C4-C5, and C5-C6 levels, causing a reduction in the prevertebral space.
At these same levels, there is bilateral narrowing of the lateral foramina.

The spinal cord is centrally located, though it is being centrally compressed by the aforementioned disk-spondylophyte complexes; its signal intensity and thickness remain within physiological limits.
No signs of intra- or extradural tumors were found.

Can someone please read this report and give me your take on it? Thanks in advance.

wanderingcobra76 said:Unfortunately, surgery is unavoidable.
Between the L4 and L5 vertebrae, most of the gelatinous material inside the disc has leaked out, and a fragment (sequester) has broken off and is pressing on a nerve, which is causing the leg pain.
It has to come out; there isn't any other way.

There is also a bulge at the level below that could cause issues (though on a much smaller scale). It’s up to the neurosurgeon to decide if they should operate on that disc at the same time.

Thanks, everything makes sense now.
Just wondering—is it laser or standard surgery, and how long does recovery take?

RADIOLOGY REPORT
MRI of the lumbar spine
Standard sagittal and transverse MRI slices were obtained.
All slices were performed both before and after the administration of intravenous paramagnetic contrast.

In the series of sagittal and transverse MRI slices through the lumbosacral spinal canal, the vertebral bodies show normal height, shape, and structure.
The visualized thoracolumbar spinal cord shows physiological signal intensity.
At the L1/L2 level, there is an intervertebral disc protrusion reducing the anterior subarachnoid space. At the L4/L5 level, there is a wide dorsomedial and left-sided intervertebral disc extrusion that extends caudally into the left lateral recess, reaching nearly the lower third of the L5 vertebral body. Post-contrast imaging reveals ring-like opacification typical of a sequestrum, which compresses the dural sac and the left L5 nerve root at its exit, causing dorsal displacement.
At the L5/S1 level, there is a wide mediolateral left-sided intervertebral disc protrusion that obliterates the anterior subarachnoid space mediolaterally on the left, affecting and displacing the S1 nerve root at its exit, though the root does not appear edematous.

Can someone please explain this report to me? I had these scans because of severe pain in my left leg. I am 40 years old. Thanks in advance! Any advice on what my next steps should be? Surgery or not?

I have always wanted to receive a letter; would you mind sending one to me? 😍

Thanks a lot, but this isn't actually my lab work; it's my mother's. She had the tests done because of some hip pain she's been having.

Search type: lumbar spine X-ray

Standard lumbar spine images show osteopenia, slight rightward shift with hypolordosis, spondylarthrosis, and early spondylotic changes. Vertebral bodies have normal height, narrowing of the space at the Th12Ll level, and early osteochondrosis from L1-L2.

Does anyone actually know what this means?

I don't bother taking my bras off unless I'm getting in the shower.😁

I always find them at the local bookstore, though they give me these weird looks everywhere else... $33but then you get one that’s actually got 100 pages...

Absolutely not. No way in hell