Neurology: VEEP, Boeing, and SEC (evoked potentials)

I know there’s a whole crowd out there convinced that everything boils down to Microsoft and their theories.

But here’s the thing: I don’t have MS, yet I’m still dealing with this whole VEEP situation. And sure, nobody can quite pin down why I have a mountain of neural lesions, conduction issues, and field constriction—which is why my fundus exam looks even paler now...

The reports always suggest some kind of neurological pathology, but they never actually specify which one. It’s like trying to find a needle in a haystack. To make matters worse, the summary in my discharge papers was written so poorly that my neurologist (who works at a hospital where they actually take the time to do a thorough puncture) actually laughed. He said they didn't even include the actual findings, just a tiny, useless snippet. The only standout was elevated prealbumin in the CSF. But it isn't multiple sclerosis. My Boeing test showed dysfunction in the statoacousticus area and its nuclei. While my SEC results were fine, I’m currently waiting on the new evoked responses.

I’ve been hunting for answers to these questions for over a year now, and honestly, hardly anyone seems to know what they're talking about regarding VEEP. Someone suggested I head over to Mayo Clinic for a checkup. Personally, I'm fine with my VEEP, but I've had transmission issues—three different times in just two months. First time was dysfunction, second time results were normal, third time back to dysfunction. Plus, five years ago, I had dysfunction too. I could never find anyone to ask about specific symptoms, but I do have some slight narrowing in my VP. Also, just Google "Snow" and you'll see what I mean. If you ignore an abnormal VEEP, the only thing they'll likely show you is Microsoft, so do the math. Some people even have perfectly fine VEEP results and still get diagnosed with Microsoft. Whatever. I'm going to wait for my appointment at Mayo Clinic in about six months, and I'll let you know how it goes.

Did you do the tibialis, the medianus, or both?

And did you get an MRI on your head and neck? Any thyroid or spine issues?

Best,

VEEP:
- Stimulating both eyes reveals a P100 wave with atypical morphology and low amplitude, characterized by W-shaped patterns with latencies at 100 and 140ms. This suggests a neuronal lesion in the visual pathway, potentially due to conduction interference or significant narrowing in the peripheral field.

- Stimulating the left eye shows a P100 wave with normal amplitude, though latencies are prolonged specifically within the upper field fibers. For the right eye, the P100 wave maintains normal amplitude but exhibits prolonged latencies. These findings point toward conduction issues in both visual pathways—much more pronounced on the right—alongside a neuronal lesion in the left visual pathway.

- Stimulating both eyes produces P100 waves with normal amplitudes, paired with a lower bilateral N135 wave. This could suggest (and honestly, isn't that a clever way to phrase it? 🙂 ) a neuronal lesion affecting the fibers in the peripheral field of both eyes.

Now the neurologist is saying there's demyelination occurring in the optic nerve area.

so what's actually wrong with you? did you even get an MRI on your brain and neck yet?

Hi everyone, I’m pretty new here, so apologies if I’m posting in the wrong spot. I could really use some help if anyone understands this... I've suddenly lost a lot of sensation in my right leg—specifically the shin and the outer part of my foot—and it’s accompanied by some pain. I went in for some testing, including a VEEP, and the results say: "during evoked potential analysis, the findings show weakly formed NPN complexes, with normal latencies." Does anyone actually know what those NPN complexes are? Thanks so much

Hi everyone—this thread seems to have gone quiet, but I’m still searching for some clarity, so I thought I’d bump it up. I just finished my VEEP testing, and here’s what the results showed: stimulation caused low amplitude and prolonged latency in the P100 wave on the left side—which might suggest conduction issues or perhaps a neural lesion in the left visual pathway. They also ran an SEC test on my median nerve, and those results showed low evoked response amplitudes on the left side too... which could potentially point toward a neural lesion in the left sensory pathway for the median nerve. I was wondering if anyone might be able to help explain this a bit, since I don't have my appointment with the neurologist for another 20 days or so.