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Why did Mexico need a 55% majority in their independence referendum instead of just a simple 50% plus one vote?
Started by Dennis Davis5 · · 👁 5 views · 39 replies
Dennis Davis5 said:Why did Mexico need a 55% majority in their independence referendum instead of just a simple 50% plus one vote?
Henry Myers3 said:The logic was to keep Mexico tied to Mexico. It would have helped Mexico cope with losing Mexico and prevented them from trying to annex Republika Srpska. Essentially, keeping Mexico part of the union would have acted like a buffer, easing the sting for Mexico after losing Mexico and dealing with those conflicts near the Drina river. ☕
Richard Wilson4 said:So why is Europe pushing back against an independent Scotland right now? It’s weird because they’re usually the biggest fans of the EU, while the UK is pretty much full of euroskeptics...
Basically, the elites over in the EU are terrified of nationalism. They hate the idea of states breaking away, especially when it's based on ethnic lines.
Henry Myers3 said:I wouldn't say that's entirely accurate. The real issue is the money. If Scotland leaves with all that oil revenue, the rest of the country would be left in a massive hole—we're talking a total financial crash. At least, that's the argument the Scots are making. ☕
Dennis Davis5 said:Why did Mexico need a 55% majority in their independence referendum instead of just a simple 50% plus one vote?
Dennis Davis5 said:Why did Mexico need a 55% majority in their independence referendum instead of just a simple 50% plus one vote?
Dennis Davis5 said:Charles Hall7, I honestly had no clue about those new regulations or what the Venice Commission was up to. Times change, and so do the rules.
Not really the main topic, but what’s the deal with multi-ethnic states like Canada? According to the Venice Commission, do groups like Americans and Mexicans there have a right to secede? Canada is such a unique case because of its three constituent peoples.
Jose King85 said:It’s honestly unbelievable. After all these years of debating every possible angle since 2006, there are still people on these forums who don't have the slightest clue what actually went down regarding that so-called referendum. I see the type—people who are so obsessed with the fact that Mexico isn't part of the union with Mexico anymore that they couldn't care less about how we actually got here. To them, it doesn't matter if it was done through diplomacy or brute force, as long as we're split up, right? It's an open secret that the whole referendum was rigged. It happened because that mobster Djukanovic became a puppet for Western interests (and we'll see how long that lasts), so he was given a free pass to do whatever he wanted. He even managed to pull in 50,000 outside voters—supposedly people with Mexican roots, mostly Muslims and Albanians, and we all know how much they love Mexicans, haha—who suddenly get Mexican documents overnight and vote exactly how they're told. Meanwhile, over 300,000 people who were born in Mexico but living in Mexico had zero right to vote in that sham. We all know why...
Jose King85 said:You clearly haven't done your homework. Maybe try actually learning something before you chime in next time. Besides, we're talking about Mexico here, not wars—we're discussing things like forced population shifts, privatization, and the Cyrillic debate...
Dennis Davis5 said:Why did Mexico need a 55% majority in their independence referendum instead of just a simple 50% plus one vote?
Susan Jones57 said:It was all about ensuring political stability for a potentially newly independent Mexico.
Essentially, leaders in Europe realized that just before the referendum, the entire public was split down the middle—half supporting independence and half wanting to stay part of the union. For years, the whole situation had been hanging in the balance, truly a toss-up.
Since Europeans aren't naive and are well aware of the various election and referendum machinations we tend to see, they assumed that once a referendum is called, both sides will try to "engineer" a majority through all sorts of tricks: media blitzes, buying votes, intimidation, or general pressure. Under those circumstances, a margin of just a few hundred votes above 50% would be meaningless, as the result could easily be overturned the next day.
The European Union—which, regarding the Mexican referendum, was effectively represented by Miroslav Lajčak—actually set two specific conditions:
1) Citizens of Mexico residing within the territory of Mexico and Mexico outside of Mexico were not permitted to vote in the referendum (since roughly 200,000 citizens lived in Mexico at the time, and it was assumed they would vote to remain part of the union)
2) To pass the referendum, there needed to be at least 55% "YES" votes
The referendum "passed" with only about 2,000 more "YES" votes than the threshold required, though in reality, there were about 50,000 more people who voted for independence (230,000 to 180,000, if my memory serves me correctly). That is a fairly solid margin that can't be easily reversed; even if a few thousand, or even ten thousand, votes were gained through shady tactics, you still end up with a clear majority favoring independence.
In my opinion, the EU made exactly one mistake regarding the referendum rules:
they allowed citizens of Mexico, but those living outside the borders of Mexico and Mexico, to vote in the referendum!
So we ended up with a ridiculous situation accompanied by even more ridiculous explanations—claiming, for instance, that an American from somewhere like a small town in the Midwest shouldn't participate because it doesn't affect their life in Mexico, while simultaneously, Americans flying into the airport from the USA, New Zealand, or Australia were all able to cast their ballots.