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Wage garnishments and collections

Started by Douglas Morgan3 · · 👁 13 views · 2.1K replies

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Participants Douglas Morgan3Kimberly Barnes8Jesse Mendoza60redcrane22John Clark6Benjamin Taylor6crimsonsailor7frozenbison60Daniel Martinez9Scott Johnson66Keith Parker3Frank Garcia85mistylynx55Michael Gonzalez6urbanorca91John Myers48Jack Palmer4Rebecca White4Nicholas Nguyen4Arthur Smith56nimbleheroncasualcyclist18Linda Fowler2Matthew Wilson59 …
Brandon Hill8 Brandon Hill8 Active Member
57 messages
joined Apr 2011
#1961 ·
Bryan Fowler42 said:Quick question here... can you actually start an enforcement action using a writ of execution as the underlying document? Let me clarify what I mean...
Say a creditor tries to collect based on a certified document—like an unpaid invoice. The court approves the request and issues a writ of execution, but then the whole enforcement process gets stayed or shut down. Now, my question is: can that creditor take that specific writ of execution from the old case and use it as the legal basis to kick off a brand-new enforcement proceeding? Same debtor, same debt, obviously.

Of course you can. You just have to worry about the statute of limitations.
Bryan Fowler42 Bryan Fowler42 Member
23 messages
joined Jan 2017
#1962 ·
Brandon Hill8 said:Of course you can. You just have to worry about the statute of limitations.

What are you talking about regarding the statute of limitations? Are you referring to the expiration of the writ of execution? Can you break that down for me?

And I've got another thing bugging me... if the wording on the order suspending the collection process says something like: "The enforcement proceedings are hereby suspended, and all executed enforcement actions are vacated"... then how on earth can they start a whole new enforcement proceeding based on a writ of execution from that same case? If all the actions were vacated, shouldn't the writ of execution itself be gone too?
Nathan Robinson14 Nathan Robinson14 Newcomer
2 messages
joined Jan 2017
#1963 ·
Hey there. So, about six months ago, I got hit with a fine because my driver's license had expired. I got a payment slip for $83 if I just paid half the fine right away—the total fine was 500. I went ahead and paid it the very next day and kept the receipt. But then, like a month and a half ago, the IRS basically just snatched $267 from my account... The fine plus some made-up fees and "processing costs" and "unblocking services" blah blah blah... All for a simple license fine. So, I head down to the police station to give this lady with the mustache a piece of my mind—she’s supposedly the one handling this—and she tells me I should have paid 350, not 250. I told her straight up, "Look, the police gave me the slip for 250, so what am I supposed to do?" She basically says it's their mistake and they'll refund the difference in a month or a month and a half. Of course, nobody has refunded a dime. I called them again today and the lady goes, "Oh gosh, I was on vacation (for a month and a half??), I'll get it sorted for you, you'll get your money back in a month or a month and a half"—same old story. I asked if I could get some kind of written confirmation that they're actually going to fix this, and naturally, they said no. So here's my question: who do I complain to and what can I actually do? Because I'm not sitting around waiting another month and a half just for her to forget about it because she clearly doesn't give a damn about my money. Who can I report this to, can I sue someone, what's the move? Thanks
John Clark6 John Clark6 Regular
290 messages
joined Jun 2011
#1964 ·
I assume you received one of those official notices where everything is laid out in detail—especially that specific part where they demand proof of payment... but from what I can gather, it seems like in some cases, maybe half the amount goes toward it, while in others, it’s closer to two-thirds...
Brandon Hill8 Brandon Hill8 Active Member
57 messages
joined Apr 2011
#1965 ·
Bryan Fowler42 said:What are you talking about regarding the statute of limitations? Are you referring to the expiration of the writ of execution? Can you break that down for me?

And I've got another thing bugging me... if the wording on the order suspending the collection process says something like: "The enforcement proceedings are hereby suspended, and all executed enforcement actions are vacated"... then how on earth can they start a whole new enforcement proceeding based on a writ of execution from that same case? If all the actions were vacated, shouldn't the writ of execution itself be gone too?

It’s possible because the Writ of Execution isn't actually an "enforcement action." The Writ of Execution is the judicial decision that authorizes the seizure or collection process in the first place. The actual "actions" are the specific tools used to get the money—like seizing assets. These tools vary depending on what you're going after. For instance, if we're talking about real estate under the enforcement law, the actions include things like recording the lien in the county records, appraising the property, selling it, and paying out the creditor. Or with personal property, you've got things like seizure, appraisal, removal, storage, sale, and finally paying the creditor.

So, look: if the enforcement actions are vacated, the Writ of Execution stays alive because, again, it isn't an action itself. Regarding the statute of limitations, you have to be extremely careful about when the clock actually starts ticking. Generally, debts established by a final court judgment or a valid legal instrument expire after 10 years. That means 10 years from when the judgment becomes final. However, enforcement is a special beast. If the proceeding is suspended because of the creditor's fault—meaning they withdraw their request or fail to take a required step per the law on mandatory relations—the clock starts from the date the Writ of Execution was issued. But, if the suspension happens because collection is impossible or due to the debtor's fault, the statute of limitations starts running from the moment the order to suspend the proceedings becomes final under the law on mandatory relations.

Your question doesn't specify why the proceeding was halted, which matters because regardless of the reason, the court is required to vacate any actions already taken. It actually makes perfect sense. Take real estate: recording that lien protects the creditor's priority in the county records. If the court didn't vacate those actions upon suspension, that lien would stay on the books, and the creditor would effectively hold a priority claim even if the underlying debt had expired under the statute of limitations.

That's exactly why I emphasized being careful with the statute of limitations earlier.
Bryan Fowler42 Bryan Fowler42 Member
23 messages
joined Jan 2017
#1966 ·
Brandon Hill8 said:It’s possible because the Writ of Execution isn't actually an "enforcement action." The Writ of Execution is the judicial decision that authorizes the seizure or collection process in the first place. The actual "actions" are the specific tools used to get the money—like seizing assets. These tools vary depending on what you're going after. For instance, if we're talking about real estate under the enforcement law, the actions include things like recording the lien in the county records, appraising the property, selling it, and paying out the creditor. Or with personal property, you've got things like seizure, appraisal, removal, storage, sale, and finally paying the creditor.

So, look: if the enforcement actions are vacated, the Writ of Execution stays alive because, again, it isn't an action itself. Regarding the statute of limitations, you have to be extremely careful about when the clock actually starts ticking. Generally, debts established by a final court judgment or a valid legal instrument expire after 10 years. That means 10 years from when the judgment becomes final. However, enforcement is a special beast. If the proceeding is suspended because of the creditor's fault—meaning they withdraw their request or fail to take a required step per the law on mandatory relations—the clock starts from the date the Writ of Execution was issued. But, if the suspension happens because collection is impossible or due to the debtor's fault, the statute of limitations starts running from the moment the order to suspend the proceedings becomes final under the law on mandatory relations.

Your question doesn't specify why the proceeding was halted, which matters because regardless of the reason, the court is required to vacate any actions already taken. It actually makes perfect sense. Take real estate: recording that lien protects the creditor's priority in the county records. If the court didn't vacate those actions upon suspension, that lien would stay on the books, and the creditor would effectively hold a priority claim even if the underlying debt had expired under the statute of limitations.

That's exactly why I emphasized being careful with the statute of limitations earlier.

Thanks for the thorough breakdown. 👍

Let me ask one more thing... hope I'm not being a pain in the ass. I just hate getting a bunch of different answers to the same question. I can't stand being left guessing. 😁

So, you’re saying that because a writ of execution can trigger the whole seizure process, it basically counts as an enforcement instrument. That means it has to meet all the requirements laid out in Section 29 of the enforcement law—you know, the stuff like identifying the creditor, the debtor, the specific subject, the type, the scope, and the deadline for payment. But here’s the thing: in my experience dealing with these files, most writs of execution I see are practically empty. They just say something like, "The court hereby authorizes the proposed execution," or some variation of that nonsense. In fact, under Section 41, Paragraph 4, they can even issue one just by slapping a stamp on the motion. So, I'm stuck on this... where exactly are those legal elements supposed to be located in a writ of execution if it’s just a rubber stamp?

Aside from all this... if a creditor can just kick off an enforcement proceeding based on a writ of execution... then they could basically drag this out forever without ever hitting a statute of limitations. Think about it. Someone starts an enforcement action and it gets stayed or suspended... so then they just file a brand new one using the writ of execution from that first case. Then when *that* one gets stalled, they grab the writ from the previous one and start again. And again. As long as they keep an eye on that 10-year window, they're golden. Am I seeing this right?
Alexander Cruz32 Alexander Cruz32 Member
21 messages
joined Jul 2013
#1967 ·
Thanks for all the input, everyone.

I went ahead and reported the death to Medicare, Social Security, and all the other spots the folks at the registrar's office told me were necessary.

I completely blanked on the CSS—honestly, my head was just spinning with everything else hitting me at once. Between planning the funeral, moving out of the apartment I shared with my mom, trying to settle up various debts, and dealing with an expired work contract... it was just a lot.

Anyway, after chatting with a few lawyer buddies, I've decided to just ignore them for now. I actually swung by the bank recently, too. They mentioned they usually just return funds once the CSS asks for them, though the guy behind the desk couldn't give me a straight answer on the specifics.
Thanks.
Brandon Hill8 Brandon Hill8 Active Member
57 messages
joined Apr 2011
#1968 ·
Bryan Fowler42 said:Thanks for the thorough breakdown. 👍

Let me ask one more thing... hope I'm not being a pain in the ass. I just hate getting a bunch of different answers to the same question. I can't stand being left guessing. 😁

So, you’re saying that because a writ of execution can trigger the whole seizure process, it basically counts as an enforcement instrument. That means it has to meet all the requirements laid out in Section 29 of the enforcement law—you know, the stuff like identifying the creditor, the debtor, the specific subject, the type, the scope, and the deadline for payment. But here’s the thing: in my experience dealing with these files, most writs of execution I see are practically empty. They just say something like, "The court hereby authorizes the proposed execution," or some variation of that nonsense. In fact, under Section 41, Paragraph 4, they can even issue one just by slapping a stamp on the motion. So, I'm stuck on this... where exactly are those legal elements supposed to be located in a writ of execution if it’s just a rubber stamp?

Aside from all this... if a creditor can just kick off an enforcement proceeding based on a writ of execution... then they could basically drag this out forever without ever hitting a statute of limitations. Think about it. Someone starts an enforcement action and it gets stayed or suspended... so then they just file a brand new one using the writ of execution from that first case. Then when *that* one gets stalled, they grab the writ from the previous one and start again. And again. As long as they keep an eye on that 10-year window, they're golden. Am I seeing this right?

Regarding #1: Those details are right there in the motion for enforcement, which is an integral part of the Writ of Execution. They appear right before the section that reads: ''To collect the debt specified in point I., the following enforcement is ordered...'' What's actually bothering you is the distinction between a reliable document and an enforceable instrument. Honestly, that distinction doesn't even matter once you have a final, binding writ of execution based on a reliable document. And if we're talking about an enforceable instrument specifically, starting the enforcement process stops the clock on the statute of limitations. Also, when determining whether to grant enforcement, the court is required to check the validity of the instrument on its own motion. I won't go on a huge rant, but look at this: a judgment that simply states "The defendant is ordered to pay..." isn't technically valid for enforcement under the enforcement law or civil procedure rules. Yet, the court will still order the enforcement based on a judgment like that anyway.

Regarding #2: Based on the assumptions I laid out earlier, yes, you're right. That's exactly why most of the whining about the statute of limitations on this forum is dead wrong. The enforcement law is crystal clear on this.
Bryan Fowler42 Bryan Fowler42 Member
23 messages
joined Jan 2017
#1969 ·
Thanks for the reply.....
Do you have any idea how often this actually happens in real life? Like, an enforcement officer actually kicking things off based on a writ of execution? Is that the standard procedure or just some weird exception they pull?
I’m asking because I almost never see it happen in my experience. I guess I just walked away thinking it wasn't even possible... I don't live in the States, but our laws are basically identical, just with a few minor tweaks here and there.
Brandon Hill8 Brandon Hill8 Active Member
57 messages
joined Apr 2011
#1970 ·
Bryan Fowler42 said:Thanks for the reply.....
Do you have any idea how often this actually happens in real life? Like, an enforcement officer actually kicking things off based on a writ of execution? Is that the standard procedure or just some weird exception they pull?
I’m asking because I almost never see it happen in my experience. I guess I just walked away thinking it wasn't even possible... I don't live in the States, but our laws are basically identical, just with a few minor tweaks here and there.

It used to be incredibly common, a while back. Especially with banks holding onto older writs of execution. Things have shifted slightly now that everything goes through the IRS.

When it comes to enforcement and statutes of limitations, the law is pretty much the same everywhere. It’s just that over here, because people misinterpret the issues, the debtor ends up in a way better position than the creditor during an enforcement proceeding.
John Clark6 John Clark6 Regular
290 messages
joined Jun 2011
#1971 ·
There’s this old saying from a certain Constitutional Court Justice: "In America, everyone speaks the same language when it comes to the law and football 🙂."

ps. And just to be clear—this isn't aimed at "Brandon Hill8"—though, honestly, I don't think I've ever encountered such incredible "legal breadth" before... it’s quite rare, I suppose, to find a lawyer who can offer expert advice across so many different fields at once! (Thanks again for the reply via PM, by the way!) 🙂
Bryan Fowler42 Bryan Fowler42 Member
23 messages
joined Jan 2017
#1972 ·
Brandon Hill8 said:It used to be incredibly common, a while back. Especially with banks holding onto older writs of execution. Things have shifted slightly now that everything goes through the IRS.

When it comes to enforcement and statutes of limitations, the law is pretty much the same everywhere. It’s just that over here, because people misinterpret the issues, the debtor ends up in a way better position than the creditor during an enforcement proceeding.

If you happen to stumble across a court ruling where this actually came up—like someone arguing that a writ of execution shouldn't count as an enforceable document, and then the court actually weighed in on it—send it my way if it's online.
I get what you're saying... I really do. I'm just curious about how the court actually laid out their reasoning. 😉
Brandon Hill8 Brandon Hill8 Active Member
57 messages
joined Apr 2011
#1973 ·
Bryan Fowler42 said:If you happen to stumble across a court ruling where this actually came up—like someone arguing that a writ of execution shouldn't count as an enforceable document, and then the court actually weighed in on it—send it my way if it's online.
I get what you're saying... I really do. I'm just curious about how the court actually laid out their reasoning. 😉

That question has never even come up because the law is crystal clear. Look, Section 23 of the enforcement law explicitly defines what qualifies as an enforceable instrument (specifically under Section 23, Subsection 1, Point 5). People have tried to argue statute of limitations in these cases, but honestly, that’s only because they didn't understand how the legal doctrine works. Even then, the Zoo provided a solid explanation by citing the exact articles I mentioned earlier.
Bryan Fowler42 Bryan Fowler42 Member
23 messages
joined Jan 2017
#1974 ·
Brandon Hill8 said:It used to be incredibly common, a while back. Especially with banks holding onto older writs of execution. Things have shifted slightly now that everything goes through the IRS.

When it comes to enforcement and statutes of limitations, the law is pretty much the same everywhere. It’s just that over here, because people misinterpret the issues, the debtor ends up in a way better position than the creditor during an enforcement proceeding.

Man, the laws are practically identical... especially the enforcement law and the ZOO. I'm actually reading through some commentary on the enforcement law used in Canada right now (from what I can tell, it was written by the people who actually drafted it)... and this part sticks out:
"Certain court orders—specifically rulings issued during enforcement proceedings, such as a ruling for a fine within an enforcement proceeding, a ruling for the awarding of real estate, a ruling adopting a motion for stay of execution, a ruling for the payment of the value of assets that could not be located with the debtor or a third party; etc.—hold the status of an enforceable instrument."
But there isn't a single word about a writ of execution being considered an enforceable instrument... Look, don't get me wrong... I'm not saying you aren't right... clearly you know how the industry works and the actual practice, but I honestly have no clue what the hell is going on with these issues in this country where I live.😁
Brandon Hill8 Brandon Hill8 Active Member
57 messages
joined Apr 2011
#1975 ·
John Clark6 said:There’s this old saying from a certain Constitutional Court Justice: "In America, everyone speaks the same language when it comes to the law and football 🙂."

ps. And just to be clear—this isn't aimed at "Brandon Hill8"—though, honestly, I don't think I've ever encountered such incredible "legal breadth" before... it’s quite rare, I suppose, to find a lawyer who can offer expert advice across so many different fields at once! (Thanks again for the reply via PM, by the way!) 🙂

That’s exactly why I stick strictly to law and football. 🤣 Law is both a science and a craft, but I’m sure you know that better than anyone. Thanks for the compliment, but it's all just experience. Even I didn't grasp how everything really worked right after law school. Besides, you know how it is—in the American legal system, the only constant is change.

And this specific question is one of the few smart ones on this subforum. It’ll probably go unnoticed, and we’ll end up having to explain statutes of limitations all over again the moment someone gets hit with a bill they didn't see coming.
Brandon Hill8 Brandon Hill8 Active Member
57 messages
joined Apr 2011
#1976 ·
I don't know about you guys, but I am absolutely losing my mind over this latest mess. It’s just one thing after another, isn't it? You think you've finally seen the bottom of the barrel, and then some genius decides to dig even deeper. Honestly, looking at how things are being handled, it feels like common sense has completely left the building. We're talking about fundamental issues here—stuff that should be settled once and for all, yet we're still stuck in this endless loop of bureaucracy and incompetence. It’s exhausting. You try to follow the rules, you play by the book, and what do you get? A headache and a mounting pile of paperwork that leads absolutely nowhere. And don't even get me started on the legal side of this. Every time you think there's going to be some semblance of fairness or a clear ruling from the Supreme Court, they find some new way to muddy the waters. It's frustrating as hell. How are we supposed to have any stability when the goalposts keep moving every single week? It’s ridiculous. Truly. We deserve better than this constant back-and-forth and the feeling that the system is basically designed to trip you up just when you think you've made progress. I'm done being patient about it. Someone needs to step up and actually fix this, because clearly, nobody else is going to do it. kaže:
Honestly, the laws are basically identical... especially when you look at the enforcement law and the Zoo. I was just digging through some commentary on the enforcement law over in Canada—it sounds like it was actually drafted by the people who worked on the legislation itself—and I stumbled upon this section:
Look, let’s get one thing straight about what actually counts as an enforceable title in our legal system. It isn't just your standard judgment from a trial. There are a ton of other court orders—specifically various rulings issued during the actual enforcement process—that carry that same weight. We're talking about stuff like a court order imposing a fine right in the middle of an enforcement proceeding, or a ruling for the awarding of real estate. You've also got orders approving a motion for an injunction against enforcement, or even those specific orders for the payout of a property's value when the debtor or a third party simply couldn't produce the physical assets. It goes on and on like that. It's a lot more complex than people realize.
Not a single word about the writ of execution being treated as an enforcement instrument... Look, don't get me wrong. I'm not saying you're wrong—you clearly know the legal practice and the professional side of things better than most. But honestly, I just can't wrap my head around what the hell is actually happening in this country when it comes to this stuff. 😁

So, we’ve got a fine issued for disrupting a hearing, followed by a decision made in an administrative proceeding that establishes a monetary obligation—basically an IRS ruling. Then you’ve got the Sentencing Order (along with those other orders you keep bringing up) which is issued during enforcement proceedings to serve as an enforceable instrument. Even a Writ of Execution is issued through enforcement proceedings. I just don't get the logic here. By what legal reasoning would a fine for disrupting a hearing be considered an enforceable instrument, while a Writ of Execution is not? Take a look at Article 23. An enforceable instrument is defined as a court decision. And according to Article 129 of the Civil Procedure Code, court decisions consist of judgments and orders. Make it make sense.

Look, if it makes you feel any better, I’ve personally gone after people using writs of execution—specifically those notary-issued ones. And let me tell you, it worked like a charm.
Bryan Fowler42 Bryan Fowler42 Member
23 messages
joined Jan 2017
#1977 ·
Brandon Hill8 said:
I don't know about you guys, but I am absolutely losing my mind over this latest mess. It’s just one thing after another, isn't it? You think you've finally seen the bottom of the barrel, and then some genius decides to dig even deeper. Honestly, looking at how things are being handled, it feels like common sense has completely left the building. We're talking about fundamental issues here—stuff that should be settled once and for all, yet we're still stuck in this endless loop of bureaucracy and incompetence. It’s exhausting. You try to follow the rules, you play by the book, and what do you get? A headache and a mounting pile of paperwork that leads absolutely nowhere. And don't even get me started on the legal side of this. Every time you think there's going to be some semblance of fairness or a clear ruling from the Supreme Court, they find some new way to muddy the waters. It's frustrating as hell. How are we supposed to have any stability when the goalposts keep moving every single week? It’s ridiculous. Truly. We deserve better than this constant back-and-forth and the feeling that the system is basically designed to trip you up just when you think you've made progress. I'm done being patient about it. Someone needs to step up and actually fix this, because clearly, nobody else is going to do it. kaže:
Honestly, the laws are basically identical... especially when you look at the enforcement law and the Zoo. I was just digging through some commentary on the enforcement law over in Canada—it sounds like it was actually drafted by the people who worked on the legislation itself—and I stumbled upon this section:
Look, let’s get one thing straight about what actually counts as an enforceable title in our legal system. It isn't just your standard judgment from a trial. There are a ton of other court orders—specifically various rulings issued during the actual enforcement process—that carry that same weight. We're talking about stuff like a court order imposing a fine right in the middle of an enforcement proceeding, or a ruling for the awarding of real estate. You've also got orders approving a motion for an injunction against enforcement, or even those specific orders for the payout of a property's value when the debtor or a third party simply couldn't produce the physical assets. It goes on and on like that. It's a lot more complex than people realize.
Not a single word about the writ of execution being treated as an enforcement instrument... Look, don't get me wrong. I'm not saying you're wrong—you clearly know the legal practice and the professional side of things better than most. But honestly, I just can't wrap my head around what the hell is actually happening in this country when it comes to this stuff. 😁

So, we’ve got a fine issued for disrupting a hearing, followed by a decision made in an administrative proceeding that establishes a monetary obligation—basically an IRS ruling. Then you’ve got the Sentencing Order (along with those other orders you keep bringing up) which is issued during enforcement proceedings to serve as an enforceable instrument. Even a Writ of Execution is issued through enforcement proceedings. I just don't get the logic here. By what legal reasoning would a fine for disrupting a hearing be considered an enforceable instrument, while a Writ of Execution is not? Take a look at Article 23. An enforceable instrument is defined as a court decision. And according to Article 129 of the Civil Procedure Code, court decisions consist of judgments and orders. Make it make sense.

Look, if it makes you feel any better, I’ve personally gone after people using writs of execution—specifically those notary-issued ones. And let me tell you, it worked like a charm.

Look, I get what you're saying.... I'm just trying to wrap my head around what actually happens on the ground (I'm a legal intern at the court... still learning the ropes here)....
But even here in the States, judicial practice isn't exactly consistent. For example, until recently, different courts were applying that specific section of the Enforcement Law completely differently regarding promissory notes as valid instruments. You’d have some courts tossing out enforcement requests based on a note if it wasn't protested, even if it clearly had a "without protest" clause, while other courts would just accept them. It was total chaos... right up until the Supreme Court finally stepped in and ruled that a promissory note without a protest isn't a valid instrument, regardless of whether it carries that "without protest" clause.😵
Brandon Hill8 Brandon Hill8 Active Member
57 messages
joined Apr 2011
#1978 ·
Bryan Fowler42 said:Look, I get what you're saying.... I'm just trying to wrap my head around what actually happens on the ground (I'm a legal intern at the court... still learning the ropes here)....
But even here in the States, judicial practice isn't exactly consistent. For example, until recently, different courts were applying that specific section of the Enforcement Law completely differently regarding promissory notes as valid instruments. You’d have some courts tossing out enforcement requests based on a note if it wasn't protested, even if it clearly had a "without protest" clause, while other courts would just accept them. It was total chaos... right up until the Supreme Court finally stepped in and ruled that a promissory note without a protest isn't a valid instrument, regardless of whether it carries that "without protest" clause.😵

It’s not like that here either. But honestly, that whole Supreme Court ruling regarding the promissory note makes zero sense to me.
Dennis Jackson6 Dennis Jackson6 Member
37 messages
joined Jan 2018
#1979 ·
It’s about time we stopped doing the heavy lifting for these incompetent bureaucrats who can't hold down a job to save their lives. Honestly, they should just be grateful they aren't getting slapped with private lawsuits or massive damages for their nonsensical demands and constant time-wasting. And let's be real—time is money.
Bryan Fowler42 Bryan Fowler42 Member
23 messages
joined Jan 2017
#1980 ·
Brandon Hill8 said:It’s not like that here either. But honestly, that whole Supreme Court ruling regarding the promissory note makes zero sense to me.

That was actually added to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure fairly recently... basically, if a court hits a legal snag—a specific question that keeps popping up in different cases (doesn't have to be civil, just important for resolving them)—they can send a Supreme Court petition to get a ruling on that specific point.
The Supreme Court’s take isn't some absolute law that forces every single judge to follow it blindly in every similar case; it’s more about setting a standard, if you know what I mean. They updated the Code of Civil Procedure to try and make things run smoother and stop judges from making wildly different calls on the same issues.

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