I don't think anyone’s actually offended here, so don't sweat it. 🙂 But honestly, you’re never going to get a straight answer if the question itself is fuzzy. We need specifics: who’s dealing with whom? Is it a service or a physical product? Are we talking about someone inside the sales tax system or outside of it? Is the entity even registered for sales tax in a different state? You know, all that stuff.
When questions are this vague, neither the IRS nor U.S. Customs and Border Protection are going to give you a definitive "yes" or "no." Everything depends on a dozen different variables that can swing the whole thing either way. 😁 Oh well, we're young—we'll figure it out eventually. 😁
Back in the day, I used to fax actual, hard-copy documents over to my tax advisor just so she could look at the nitty-gritty details—exact business IDs, headquarters locations, the whole nine yards. Only after she squinted at those papers would she finally shoot me an answer via email.
I reckon the specific regulation that would actually set out the rules for this hasn't even been drafted yet, so we’re basically stuck in limbo for now.
If you look at the IRS instructions for filing the sales tax returns back in 2013 on their website, it says: "II.14. This section is for recording the value of imported goods and the sales tax calculated upon import under Section 76, Subsection 8. However, please note that no data should be entered here because the official VAT payment regulation regarding these provisions has not yet been established to categorize them for calculation purposes."
Look, you gotta pay up. That much should be obvious by now. Honestly, the least painful way to handle this is to just give Verizon a call, hammer out a deal with them, and then actually stick to it.
Noah Myers8 said:Can anyone help me out? Seven years ago, we sold our condo in downtown Chicago and moved out to the suburbs. Fast forward to today, and I just got hit with a garnishment notice because of some unpaid gas bills from the previous owner. It’s for a property I haven't owned in seven years, all because the new tenant never bothered to transfer the utility account into their own name. What can I actually do about this? The debt isn't mine, but since I'm still listed as the owner on paper, I'm getting targeted. When I called the local utility office in GP San Francisco, they basically told me it's up to the new owner to switch the billing, but what am I supposed to do in the meantime? Just sit here waiting to get sued every time they miss a payment?
Look, I'm no legal expert when it comes to this kind of technical mess, but didn't you have to officially close out your contract with the utility company for that place? I mean, if you sold the place, shouldn't you have gone down to the gas company and terminated your service agreement entirely? Go grab whatever paperwork you signed with them back when you actually lived in that apartment and see what it says about closing the account.
Donna Adams said:My main account is frozen, and my only access is through a protected account used solely for child support benefits since I'm currently unemployed.
I have a bank loan that I am paying off on my own.
I also owe money from other agreements—one court judgment and some bills from AT&T—but right now, no one is actually collecting. They are all just sitting in a queue waiting for payment.
I was recently gifted a car. Now I'm wondering: if I register it in my name, will FINRA flag it with the IRS (or the Department of Justice)? Could they seize it?
Or would it be safer to transfer the title to someone else?
Thank you.
Look, FINRA isn't going to go digging for that. That's not their lane. They don't just show up at your house to grab cars or property; they deal with freezing your cash and bank accounts. But here’s the catch: if one of your creditors decides to switch things up and goes through the court system to target your physical assets—like your house or your car—then yeah, a judge can absolutely order that car to be seized.
Laura Carter6, I’m a little lost here. Your account was frozen back in 2011 because of some $233 debt you haven't cleared yet, but money keeps hitting the account anyway. 😕 Am I reading this right? Look, if you can actually withdraw cash from that account when it gets credited, then your account isn't technically frozen.
Unemployment benefits are considered protected funds, which means they’re supposed to go into a protected account. If you don't have one, that money just lands in your regular checking, and the collectors will snatch it up instantly—and let me tell you, that debt from 2011 has probably ballooned into a massive mountain by now.
If you're still waiting on those unemployment checks to arrive, do yourself a favor and open a protected account immediately. Once you get the cash, head down to the bank and pay off whatever chunk you can just to chip away at that freeze.
You’ll need to contact FINRA to find out exactly how much you owe in total.
Why on earth wouldn't the creditor drop the execution if they know you've already settled up? Are you absolutely certain there isn't some other legal headache hanging over your head keeping your account frozen?
Look, you’re being incredibly vague here. Who even are you owing money to? What kind of collection process are we talking about—is this one of those bank levies where the Fed or some major lender just pulls funds straight from your account? Have you actually sat down and looked at your bank statements to see what's going on, or did you ever even set up that protected account through the Treasury? And if you've already paid the whole damn thing off, did you actually bother letting the creditor know?
So, why didn't they just bundle everything into one invoice this time—both the goods and the shipping costs? Are we looking at a different kind of deal now, or what?
By the way, just a heads-up: Sections 7 and 8 of the tax code lay out exactly what counts as a product versus a service. You probably already have that memorized, but hey, I figured I'd mention it just in case.
First thing you need to do is dig out that old policy—the actual one you signed. If it says it auto-renews (and let’s be real, it almost certainly does, and you signed off on it), then you don't really have a leg to stand on. You can't just claim you didn't know if you never sent them a formal, written notice to kill the contract.
They weren't even required to send you those reminders. That's the whole point of signing a contract in the first place; you knew what your obligations were from day one.
Honestly, after all this mess, I’d definitely go hunting for some written guidance from the Department of the Treasury. Though, knowing how slow those bureaucrats move, you’ll probably be sitting around waiting a good couple of months for a response.
So wait, he’s doing all the actual work, and then you just send him an invoice at the end? I'm lost 😕 The way I see it, there isn't even any sales tax involved here—just income tax, since we're talking about an independent contractor agreement. Someone please set me straight if I've got that wrong.
Look, they charged you sales tax, plain and simple. You don't list it anywhere—not on your tax returns, not in your filings—because if you aren't reporting a liability, you have zero right to claim an input credit.
Just write the whole thing off as an expense. If you’re really hell-bent on getting that sales tax back, you'll have to go through the IRS online portal and fight for it there.
Just a heads-up, the whole "VAT ID" thing isn't called the same thing everywhere you go. 😉 First things first, take that tax number from your invoice and run it through the VIES database to see if they’re actually registered for VAT in Denmark.
If they show up as registered and you've got their valid VAT ID, then you just treat it like any other acquisition and book it accordingly. From what I gathered, these folks in Denmark are basically just a branch of the outfit over in Russia. 😕
Now, if they aren't registered there? Then you're looking at receiving goods and services from an entity based outside the US, which means you handle the input tax based on those rules.
That’s all assuming we're talking about one single company. If they're actually two separate legal entities, the whole situation changes completely. It really all boils down to whatever is printed on your paperwork—you've got to cross-reference the invoice against the CMR and the shipping manifest. Look, if you want to be absolutely certain, check everything with the IRS. They might even ask you to send over scans of everything you've got, because when it comes to this stuff, every little detail matters.
brightnomad16, you’ve got a mess on your hands here. 😁 You’re throwing so many different companies into the mix that I can’t tell if you’re dealing with a fake three-way deal or just a standard chain of deliveries.
There was an article about this exact scenario in the latest issue of an accounting and tax journal—try to track down that specific edition.
With these kinds of shipments, every tiny detail on the invoice matters, and they’re going to scrutinize every single piece of supporting paperwork you have. It’s impossible to give you a straight answer without seeing the actual files. The whole thing hinges on where everyone is registered for VAT purposes and how the goods actually moved from point A to point B. Since you don't have a VAT ID, I'm guessing you bought the goods inclusive of tax, right?
Look, the cleanest way to handle this is to grab every scrap of paper you have, spread it all out on your desk, and lay it out chronologically. Once you've done that, call up a tax advisor and let them walk you through it step-by-step. Be ready, because they’re going to grill you on every little thing—all the VAT IDs, the specifics on the shipping manifests, and the exact logistics of how the cargo moved (was it delivered with transport included, or separate? who handled the freight? what was the route?).
So, I’m issuing a credit memo to a business partner—another taxpayer—in a different state, specifically under those VAT regulations regarding interest and late fees.
I’m scratching my head here because I don't think this fits into those other non-taxable supply categories. According to the IRS guidelines I was looking at:
I.10. You report the data from column 16 of the Issued (outbound) Invoices Ledger (Form I-RA), which basically means you input data for supplies covered under sections 43, 46, 47, 48, 49, 51, 52, 53, 54, and 56 of the Tax Code that are exempt from sales tax with a right to credit. This line item also includes supplies for goods on ships, aircraft, and trains under section 14.
To me, it looks like there's nowhere to put this stuff. 🤔 Am I totally off base here?