Posts by Nicholas Myers

steeleagle152 said:Can someone help me make sense of these results? My doctors are currently looking into psoriatic arthritis. My CRP has been elevated for over a year now, and my primary care physician hasn't been able to pin down the cause. I ended up at physical therapy by total chance because my foot has been killing me, and the therapist suggested it might be arthritis. I'm still waiting on the RF and anti-something results—I can't remember if it was ccb or something similar—but I should have those back tomorrow.
Thanks.
http://uploads.tapatalk-cdn.com/201...b27753d7a6.jpg

There isn't much to go on with this report. The C-reactive protein is only marginally elevated, and since there's no differential blood count, we can't tell which cells are actually up—neutrophils or lymphocytes. It’s necessary to get a CBC and check the ESR. If the sedimentation rate comes back accelerated, that could point toward an inflammatory rheumatic disease, including the one you mentioned. Either way, there is clearly some inflammation present, but this specific set of results doesn't distinguish its nature.

Chris Kim63 said:I deal with frequent ear infections. I’m clear for now, but I just headed in to get swabs taken from both ears.

It says both ears:

No polymorphonuclear white blood cells detected. Epithelial cells were present.

And specifically regarding the left ear, it notes:
Saprophytic bacteria. Basically, the cleanup crew of the microbial world. They live off dead organic matter—breaking things down so the rest of the ecosystem can actually function. Think of them as nature's recycling department. Without them, everything just stays stuck in place.

And for the right side:
Staphylococcus aureus.
Regarding penicillin and amoxicillin: resistant.
Sensitive to ciprofloxacin, sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim, oxacillin, and cefazolin.

I'd like to get some thoughts on this.

"Ear infection" is too vague here. You have to distinguish between an outer ear infection—the ear canal—and a middle ear infection. If you’re dealing with recurring outer ear issues alongside these specific findings, it’s time to see an ENT specialist. They can handle localized treatments, like cleaning out the canal or applying topical therapy if necessary. In that scenario, oral antibiotics shouldn't even be on the table.

Hannah Moore32 said:I'm looking at another lab report—not a urine culture, but a chemical analysis where they checked the urine sediment under a microscope. The White Blood Cell count came back at 1, with a reference range of 0–5. On paper, that looks perfectly fine. The problem is, I can't wrap my head around the logic here. This sample was taken only a few hours after the one used for the blood work, and it was also collected before that last round of IV therapy. How is it possible for one result to look normal while the other doesn't? Usually, you'd expect a day or two to pass, or for more medication to kick in between tests, but that wasn't the case here. Now I just feel a bit foolish, trying to figure out where the disconnect is.

There’s a fair amount of nuance here that people miss. First off, a urine culture isn't just a single test; it involves identifying the specific bacterial strain present and then running sensitivity testing to see which antibiotics actually work against it. That happens down in the microbiology lab. It also includes a microscopic examination of the sample to check for visible bacteria and signs of inflammation.

The issue is that urine dipstick testing is conducted within a biochemistry lab. It doesn't quite add up to see a dipstick screening listed under a urine culture report, given that they are two distinct procedures.

Bottom line: if the latest urine sample came back clean and the kid isn't showing any more signs of a UTI, there's no need to keep overthinking it.

It is entirely possible for two urine samples collected close together—say, on the same day—to yield conflicting results, where one shows a high White Blood Cell count and the next comes back perfectly clean. Usually, this happens because the first sample was contaminated. It wasn't collected properly, perhaps due to insufficient hygiene, an improperly secured collection bag, or a container that sat out too long before reaching the lab. Poor transport conditions can also skew the data. Simple oversight often explains the discrepancy.

Betty Collins45 said:Does anyone know what this goat milk test result actually means? [Link to image] ?

So, someone spotted fungi under the microscope, but they failed to actually grow on the culture medium. Because of that, we’re stuck—no way to identify the specific species or test which antifungals will actually work. Essentially, the sample needs to be collected again.

Chloe Garcia10 said:Could someone take a look at these urine results? I’ve been needing to pee much more frequently lately, and there's this constant sensation like I'm leaking, even though it doesn't actually look that way in my underwear.

Urine appears cloudy, yellow color, specific gravity 1.020, pH 7, Nitrites neg, Protein neg, Glucose normal, Ketones neg, Urobilinogen normal, Bilirubin neg, Red Blood Cells pos (+), Leukocyte esterase pos (+).

Urine sediment
White Blood Cells 8-10 / ref. 0-2
Red Blood Cells 4-6 / ref. 0-2
Squamous epithelial cells 15-20, ref 0-2
trace bacteria
trace amorphous phosphates

Thanks

The results aren't conclusive for a urinary tract infection, though one can't be ruled out entirely. The sample isn't ideal due to the high squamous epithelial cell count; essentially, the urine likely made contact with skin or vaginal secretions during collection. This makes the sample less reliable. I'd recommend repeating the test.

Given the timing of the sample collection, it’s likely they were part of an infection that hadn't fully cleared yet. That said, finding White Blood Cells on a urine dipstick isn't exactly a normal result; the standard reference value should be zero or negative.

Hannah Moore32 said:Hi there!
Can someone clarify what "normal" leukocyte levels look like on a urine dipstick test?
My child just finished dealing with a urinary tract infection for the second time (or so I thought)... they were hospitalized and then continued antibiotics at home for another week. While still receiving treatment at the hospital, a urine culture was taken. The results show the urine is sterile, but the dipstick shows leukocytes at 75-500. Is that too high? I can't seem to find standard reference ranges for dipsticks online. Is it possible for the culture to come back sterile simply because the antibiotics were already working?

On a standard dipstick, the normal leukocyte value is 0—essentially a negative result. Anything beyond that, even a single "+" sign, is considered abnormal.

It's entirely possible to see leukocytes in the urine even if the culture comes back sterile, especially if an infection is being treated with antibiotics; this can persist for up to two weeks. However, if leukocytes remain present while the culture stays sterile, further investigation is necessary.

Your question doesn't quite specify the timing—whether the dipstick and the culture were taken before, during, or after the antibiotic course. Typically, dipstick results aren't reported as specific numbers, but rather by "crosses" or markings ranging from negative to 1+, 2+, etc. Specific numerical values usually refer to the leukocyte count per mm³ of urine or the number of cells seen under a microscope.

steelmoose57 said:Basically, what’s working, what isn’t, and how to help him... because after all those injections and medications, his condition hasn't changed at all, and nobody has given him any straight answers. Where is the pain actually coming from? Is this a chronic thing or will it pass? If it passes, how much downtime and rest are we looking at? Will he even be able to work?

Thanks so much in advance.

Ivan

From what I can see, these results don't mention the shoulder at all—only the spine—even though there's a diagnosis of shoulder damage listed in the conclusion?!

Before anyone recommends a course of action, we need to figure out what we're actually dealing with. It strikes me as odd that if these symptoms have been dragging on this long, and systemic corticosteroid therapy has already been started, they haven't performed an X-ray of the shoulder, an ultrasound, or other diagnostic imaging.

Your father needs to consult his primary care physician to get the ball rolling on diagnostics. Since the findings suggest a potential systemic rheumatic disease, a broad lab panel is mandatory. At a minimum, he needs routine bloodwork—ESR, CRP, CBC, full biochemistry, and urinalysis—alongside radiological imaging of that shoulder, plus whatever else the physical exam dictates.

Without the actual lab results and a clear diagnosis, I can't offer any real advice.

Sarah Wells23 said:I’m only heading to the cardiologist to have them walk me through these results in a couple of weeks. Until then, I'll probably be panicking every five minutes. If anyone can make sense of this in the meantime, I’d really appreciate it.

The numbers don't look concerning. Your monocyte levels are only marginally elevated, which is standard when recovering from various viruses—many of which we breeze through without even realizing we were sick. As for the eosinophils, they're sitting right at the top end of the normal range, which could easily be linked to that dermatitis you mentioned.

In any case, just re-run the CBC in about three weeks and see how things look then.

Megan Morris70 said:In a 35-day cycle, all hormone levels came back within the normal range. Blood was drawn on days 3 and 21. I’m looking specifically at day 21—progesterone is sitting at 2.41 ug/L. For context, the ovulation range is 0.121–12.0, while the luteal phase should be between 1.83 and 23.9. Given the length of my cycle, that was likely my ovulation window. Is this value too low for ovulation, is it acceptable, or am I looking at something else entirely? I wanted to get a sense of this before heading to the doctor. Also, considering my age, does this suggest I might already be past the point of conception, or... I'd appreciate any insight or interpretation.

Your progesterone level on day 21 of your cycle falls within the luteal phase. As you can see, however, the value is sitting right at the bottom limit. This low reading suggests you likely had an anovulatory cycle—meaning an egg wasn't released. If you're planning for pregnancy, you really should check in with your OB-GYN to assess your ovarian reserve and discuss next steps.

Sarah Peterson57 said:Frequent urination and an inability to hold it. It’s been going on for three years now. Urine was sitting for a bit. No fever.

Based on what you've described, there's a chance the child is dealing with acute cystitis, which would definitely need medical attention.

brisknomad6 said:Laboratory hematology.
Search Results | Unit | Reference Interval
SE 11 mm/3.6 ks ( 4 - 24 )
Red Blood Cell count at 4.49 x10e12/L (Normal range: 3.86 - 5.08).
RDW 13.6% (Normal range: 14.6% - 16.5%)
Hemoglobin: 13.6 g/dL (Normal range: 11.9 - 15.7)
Hematocrit 0.404 L/L (0.356 - 0.470)
MCV 90.0 fL (Range: 83.0 - 97.2)
MCH 30.3 pg (Range: 27.4 - 33.9)
MCHC 337 g/L (Normal range: 320 - 345)
Platelets 349 x10e9/L (Ref range: 158 - 424)
WBC 10.5 x10e9/L (3.4 - 9.7)
Neutrophil differential: 62.7% (Ref range: 44–72%). Within normal limits.
Lymphocytes at 27.2% (Normal range: 20 - 46%).
MID 10.1% (Normal range: 2 - 19)
Metabolites and substrates.
Search Results | Result | Unit | Reference Intervals
Glucose: 113 mg/dL (Normal range: 79 - 115 mg/dL)
Creatinine at 72 umol/L (Normal range: 49 - 90).
Urate levels at 340 µmol/L (Normal range: 134 - 337).
Enzymes.
Search Results | Unit | Reference Interval
AST 19 U/L (Normal range: 8 - 30)
ALT 17 U/L (Normal range: 10 - 36)
GGT at 24 U/L (Ref: 9 - 35). Normal.
ALP 51 U/L (Reference range: 54 - 119)
Trace elements.
Search Results | Result | Unit | Reference Interval
Serum Iron: 14.8 umol/L (Normal range: 8 - 30)
TIBC 80.3 umol/L (Ref Range: 49 - 75)
UIBC is sitting at 65.5 umol/L. The standard range tops out at 59. It’s a bit elevated.
Lipids
Test Result Unit Recommendation
(S) Cholesterol 5.8 H mmol/L ( < 5.0 )
(S) HDL-cholesterol 1.6 mmol/L ( > 1.2 )
(S) LDL-cholesterol 3.5 H mmol/L ( < 3.0 )
(S) Triglycerides 1.59 mmol/L ( < 1.7 )
Hormones
Test Result Unit Ref. intervals
TSH 1.75 mIU/l ( 0.340 - 5.600 )

Female, 44, pretty laid back—aside from the occasional sinus infection, I'm doing alright 😁. Currently dealing with some menopause-related spotting, just a few drops over an hour 🙄.

The doctor ordered blood work because I've had this dry cough since December 12th. Lungs sounded clear via stethoscope. I also get frequent headaches, mostly low blood pressure issues.

THX 🙂

Do you smoke? I ask because smokers often see white blood cell counts sitting just above the upper limit. The elevated urate levels (which don't warrant medication) combined with the lipid profile suggest a need for lifestyle adjustments—specifically dietary changes, weight management, and more consistent daily activity. Additionally, looking at the iron status, the elevated UIBC and TIBC, alongside a slightly low Fe/TIBC ratio (around 18%, which is under the 20% threshold), suggests iron stores might be low or right at the bottom end of the normal range.

Given how long this cough has lasted—over three weeks now—you should schedule some follow-up testing.

Generally speaking, autoimmune diseases act as a contraindication for bone marrow donation.

Sarah Peterson57 said:https://postimg.org/image/e5jrhz5z9/

Is this some kind of inflammation? It's for a young boy.

The answer depends on several variables—does the child have phimosis, was the area properly cleaned before urination, how long had the urine been sitting before the exam, and are there symptoms like discomfort during urination or a fever? We also need to know the child's age...

The instructions for the first post in this thread were highlighted in the title for a reason.

Dear lady,

Unfortunately, AARP leaves behind a trail of cognitive, psychological, and physical scars. For many survivors, recovery is a slow grind that can stretch out over five years. Research suggests that somewhere between 30% and 55% of survivors struggle with memory and learning impairments, which typically persist for at least 12 months. Psychiatric issues—specifically depression and anxiety—are also common, often lingering up to two years after the initial bout with AARP. On top of that, permanent physical limitations and a significant drop in stamina or exercise tolerance are frequent. Lung function is often compromised as well, with recovery timelines often hitting that five-year mark.

There isn't a single, rigid protocol for follow-up care. Generally speaking, check-ups during the first year are recommended at the 3, 6, and 12-month marks, after which you might scale back to once a year. These visits should involve a thorough clinical exam (including muscle strength testing) and pulmonary function tests like spirometry. As for imaging, there’s no one-size-fits-all answer; it depends entirely on the doctor's call, though chest X-rays or other scans may be ordered. Pulse oximetry—both at rest and during activity—is standard, and for patients who are mobile, the 6-minute walk test (6MWT) is a useful tool.

Any additional testing or diagnostics are handled on a case-by-case basis.

Kate Cox2 said:I've already found what you wrote, but I'm curious about other potential causes.

Low MPXI levels usually point to a deficiency in myeloperoxidase (MPO), an enzyme found in neutrophil granules that plays a key role in fighting bacteria. This shortage can be primary—meaning it's hereditary—or secondary, caused by various underlying medical conditions.

Among these secondary triggers, iron deficiency is one of the most frequent culprits for a drop in MPXI. The list of conditions that can lead to a secondary MPO deficiency, and thus lower MPXI, is extensive: pregnancy, severe infections, clotting issues (thrombotic processes), diabetes, kidney transplants, certain blood disorders (like specific myeloid leukemias, aplastic anemia, or myelodysplastic syndromes), lead poisoning, and even certain medications like chemotherapy or some anti-inflammatory drugs.

Since you mentioned dealing with ET, it’s worth noting that MPXI is typically elevated in this condition. Interestingly, patients with ET who are undergoing chemotherapy (specifically hydroxyurea) often show decreased MPXI levels, likely due to that secondary MPO deficiency.

Given how complex your situation is—treating ET with interferon—explaining a low MPXI value isn't a straightforward task.

Sophia Brooks50 said:Well, as I mentioned, my fasting venous blood glucose was 7.1. Usually, it stays around 6, which is borderline, but the machines always say it's normal. It seems like they should do that three-month retrospective test to see... once at the ER, they gave me glucose and retested after a while and it was fine, but last year when I tested after having coffee with sugar, it was 7. I wasn't fasting then, okay, I'll ask my doctor.
You didn't answer my question about GFR.

Regarding that fasting glucose reading of 7.1 mmol/L: if you were truly fasting (meaning at least 8 hours without any caloric intake) and it was drawn from venous blood, that technically meets the threshold for diabetes. However, the standard procedure is to repeat the test to confirm it, along with an OGTT and an A1C measurement.

As for GFR, considering your serum creatinine is normal but your GFR is 63 mL/min/1.73 m2—especially since there's a possibility of diabetes (theoretically, if you aren't showing symptoms but have a fasting glucose of 7 mmol/L or higher, that's enough for a diagnosis)—you really ought to pursue further diagnostic workups to check your kidney function. This would include things like a renal ultrasound, a 24-hour urine collection to check protein levels, and a urine protein-to-creatinine ratio.

Adam Clark50 said:Could someone please explain these bolded values? Female, 53 years old. I've been a vegetarian for years and have been dealing with anemia for about eighteen months now. I can provide more details via PM.

WBC count: 5.1 x10^9/L (Ref range: 3.4 - 9.7).
(vK) Erythrocytes 4.78 x10^12/L (Reference range: 3.86 - 5.08)
Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL (Normal range: 11.9 – 15.7 g/dL)
Hematocrit (vK) 0.405 L/L (Ref: 0.356 - 0.470)
MCV at 84.8 fL. Reference range is 83.0 - 97.2. Within normal limits.
(vK) MCH 28.3 pg 27.4 - 33.9
(vK) MCHC 334 g/L | Normal range: 320 - 345.
(vK) RDW 15.1% (Reference range: 9.0 - 15.0%)
(vK) MPV 9.4 fL 6.8 - 10.4
Platelets 182 x10^9/L (Normal range: 158 - 424)
DKS
Result | Unit | Ref. Interval
(vK) Neutrophils.
Granulocytes at 43.9%. Relative percentage is down; normal range is 44 - 72.
Lymphocytes at 39.5% (Reference range: 20 - 46).
(vK) Monocytes 13.0% (Ref range: 2–12%).
(vK) Eosinophils
Granulocytes 2.6 relative percentage. Reference range is 0 - 7.
Basophils: 1.0% (Reference range: 0 - 1%)
(vK) Neutrophils
Granulocytes 2.30 x10^9/L (Reference range: 2.06 - 6.49)
Lymphocytes 2.00 x10^9/L (Reference range: 1.19 - 3.35)
Monocytes 0.70 x10^9/L (Normal range: 0.12 - 0.84)
(vK) Eosinophil levels
Granulocytes 0.10 x10^9/L (Normal range: 0 - 0.43).
Basophils: 0.00 x10^9/L (Reference range: 0 - 0.06)
Biochemical screenings.

TRACE ELEMENTS
Result | Unit | Ref. Interval
(S) Iron levels at 4.1 µmol/L. Normal range is 8 - 30.

The results align with manifest iron deficiency, though there is no anemia present. While vegetarians are naturally prone to low iron levels, one should always consider whether there’s a more significant, underlying cause at play. It’s worth consulting a physician to rule out anything deeper. As for the neutrophils and monocytes, the counts are normal and shouldn't be a cause for concern. There's no need to get overly pedantic about percentages or obsess over every single decimal point. This should be considered a normal finding.

Kate Cox2 said:What could be causing low MPXI? Mine is at -16.

MPI—mean peroxidase activity—is a bit tricky. A high value might point toward things like megaloblastic anemia, an infection, or certain types of leukemia. On the flip side, a low reading can indicate congenital or acquired peroxidase deficiencies, which have been noted in specific cases of sepsis.

You get exactly what you ask for.

Sophia Brooks50 said:I still don't quite get how diabetics manage their sugar levels by testing five times a day just from a finger prick.

Those glucose meters pull readings from capillary blood. As previously noted, capillary data—what you get "from a finger"—isn't identical to venous blood values.

That’s the point. These devices are designed for monitoring people who already have an official diabetes diagnosis.

You can't establish a diagnosis through capillary testing; that's basic principle taught in every American medical textbook or endocrinology manual. If there’s any doubt or suspicion, the only way to confirm or rule out the condition is via a venous blood glucose test.

Sarah Reed3 said:Hi, this is for a 5-year-old child. Are these test results within the normal range?
Tly 63.0
T help 33.0
T supr 25.0
B ly 19.0
NK 15 %
CD4/CD8 1.3
Thanks in advance

For a child that age, these results look perfectly fine.

Maria Ortiz7 said:Hello, I need some info for someone close to me...

What is MXD, and what does it mean if it's elevated?

The moment you see MXD on a lab report, you know you're looking at a "low-resolution" metric. It essentially means the standard CBC machine used for the test can't tell the difference between monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils, so it just lumps them all together under the "MXD" label.

In short, to figure out what's actually happening, the test needs to be rerun on an analyzer capable of full white blood cell differentiation.

Based strictly on this, your loved one likely has elevated monocytes, eosinophils, or basophils. A real interpretation depends entirely on which specific cells are high, by how much, and what symptoms they are experiencing.

Send a message to my colleagues leeloo27 or lahor. We'll look into the details and see if we can make it happen for you.

I’d like to address a few remaining questions.

Emily Kelly67 said:What could be the reasons behind certain posts disappearing? We're talking about a thread where people are sharing personal experiences quite politely and respectfully, aiming to help others with their health issues without straying from the subject matter.

One primary reason for deletions is violations of forum policy—specifically content involving insults or the unauthorized disclosure of private information. Such posts are sanctioned and removed per the guidelines outlined in the Health Policy PDF, typically without a detailed explanation.

Can other users request that someone else's post be deleted? And is the author notified beforehand if a post is being removed—especially if nothing inappropriate or inaccurate was said? Also, can a user request to have their own specific posts deleted?

Anyone can request to have their own posts removed. However, the moderators make the final call based on the Health Policy PDF regarding whether to grant that request. Generally, requests are only approved if the post contains private data that could compromise an individual's identity. Most other requests for deletion are typically denied.

It also just occurred to me that perhaps the user I am referring to requested their own post be deleted. Is that a possibility? Thanks(...)
user Želimir02, third party in the thread.

A review of the profile for the user mentioned (Želimir02) shows no deleted posts. This indicates that all of this author's entries remain on the forum. It is possible they were moved from the secondary rhinoplasty thread to the operation nose thread, but not a single entry has been deleted by moderator intervention.

Daniel Palmer22 said:She doesn't attend school in person, but per an agreement with her professors, I bring her in for tests and exams. She studies at home and keeps up with all her assignments—everything is orderly, and she pulls straight A's on her tests. When the pain is intense, she stays in bed and sleeps a lot; when it subsides, she functions normally. However, I will follow the advice. Thank you.

I would lean toward velvetmoose9's suggestion instead. Before consulting a psychologist, one needs to rule out organic causes for the pain. Pain that wakes a child from sleep, as you described, is unlikely to be psychological; it’s far more likely to have an organic origin.

Susan Smith said:Hello,
I am looking for some insight regarding these lab results. To clarify the context:
Male, 30 years old, prone to drinking (though he denies it).
The ALT and AST enzymes, glucose, and bilirubin are very elevated on this report.
The labs were ordered due to varicose veins in his leg and a potential surgery, and now this has come to light: 😲

http://i64.tinypic.com/10z36s6.png

GGT and ALP are missing for a complete picture, but based on what was provided, I wouldn't call these transaminase levels "very elevated"—they seem more mildly increased. Furthermore, the pattern of elevation (ALT being higher than AST) isn't typically what we see with alcohol-induced liver damage, where AST is usually higher than ALT, though enzyme values alone can't pinpoint the exact cause of liver injury. The workup needs to be completed (definitely check GGT, ALP, then albumin, total proteins, and a lipid panel). It's also necessary to assess if the individual is overweight, perform a thorough clinical exam, and repeat the labs after strict abstinence from alcohol and a liver-protective diet. Depending on history, epidemiology, or clinical findings, further testing—like an abdominal ultrasound or viral hepatitis markers—should be done immediately.

rowdyhawk27 said:I won't linger... thoughts?

The labs show low iron stores. It’s likely a combination of a Vegetarian diet and the loss of menstruation, though without a full clinical exam, I can't say for certain.

Actually, the results show both leukopenia and neutropenia. According to the report, this can happen during or following a viral infection, or even due to certain medications. In those cases, it’s typically transient—the levels should normalize once you've recovered or stopped taking the offending drug.

You should definitely rerun the KKS test before the three-month mark—maybe in a week or two—to track how those leukocyte levels are trending. If the numbers keep dropping or just refuse to bounce back, then we'll need to move into more intensive diagnostics.

redcyclist7 said:I need some help interpreting my lab results. My leukocyte count is elevated, among other things. Any insight?

Leukocytes: 10.7 H
Granulocytes 80.8 H
Lymphocytes at 14.8L.

I need some help here... what does this actually mean, and what kind of conditions could we be looking at?

My doctor is baffled. I have zero pain and my fever is non-existent, yet I’m struggling to breathe. There are moments when I feel like I'm completely running out of air. Thanks.

The test needs to be repeated in a week or two to track the trends. Those breathing issues shouldn't be ignored—they need a deeper look. A clinical exam, maybe some spirometry, an EKG, or a chest X-ray should probably be on the table.