Posts by Nicholas Myers

briskcrane8 said:What should be done about low erythrocyte, hemoglobin, and hematocrit levels, and what is causing this? I am already in quite a panic and worried, especially since the changes are happening daily and aren't just minimal or negligible.

Hello,

A lot of data and parameters are missing before we can say anything meaningful, but based on what you’ve shared, this anemia looks more like what we call anemia of chronic disease. Supporting this are the low iron concentration, low transferrin saturation (though it's still slightly above 15%), and low TIBC, while ferritin stays within the normal range. Of course, it could also be a mixed anemia—meaning several different factors are contributing to the drop.

If we are looking at anemia of chronic disease, bleeding wouldn't be the culprit here; instead, it would be something else entirely: chronic inflammation, malignancy, or an autoimmune issue.

You didn't mention, for instance, your sedimentation rate or CRP, which would serve as potential indicators for this type of anemia.

We are also missing one fundamental piece of the puzzle: the MCV.

Furthermore, you keep citing lymphocyte percentages, but there is no mention of the absolute leukocyte count. Without that, those percentage shifts can't even be interpreted.

In any case, this anemia is a signal that something is happening. To figure out exactly what, a broader diagnostic workup is clearly necessary. A primary care physician is mistaken if they think this can be handled with a single referral to the ER; the ER isn't the place for this kind of investigation.

The lady needs to see a hematologist first, and then we can see what the next steps should be.

swiftgull37 said:I'm a girl, and my androstendion hormone is high androstendion - 13.8 (CLIA method. Ref interval 0.7-12.9.

Note and comment: D5

Please, until I see my doctor, the annual results are... what is going on?

Elevated androstendion levels can be linked to PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome). One possible explanation for this might be insulin resistance—essentially, elevated insulin levels stimulating androgen production in the ovaries.

Androstendion itself can also be adrenal in origin, stemming from the adrenal glands due to various different disorders.

It is impossible to determine exactly what is happening based solely on these numbers.

silverfalcon412 said:Thank you for your response. 🙏
I checked, and there isn't a second number. The first box shows 13, while the second one just has a dash (-). What’s that dash supposed to mean?
Based on everything we've discussed, can it be said that my risk of developing arthritis is higher?

So, you're only carrying HLA-DR13.

Based on your HLA typing results, you have a genetic predisposition for psoriasis (HLA-C*06) and hemochromatosis (HLA-A3). Both conditions can manifest through changes in the skin and joints. You don't show a predisposition for rheumatoid arthritis.

Given the nail changes combined with these HLA typing results, it looks like things might be heading toward psoriasis. This will likely serve as the roadmap for how we handle everything moving forward.

silverfalcon412 said:Hi there. I’d appreciate some help interpreting these results. Thanks in advance. 😛
(...)
Also, I read that some studies link HLA-DRB1 to arthritis.

Check those results again—specifically the "HLA-DRB1*" section. Is there any number listed other than 13?

Otherwise, you misread the literature. It isn't HLA-DRB1 that links to rheumatoid arthritis, it's HLA-DRB1*04. That's a significant distinction.

Until you verify that finding, go back and re-read what I wrote earlier regarding this topic:

Maria Fisher46 said:The core logic of this testing is based on the fact that certain HLA antigens show up more frequently in people with specific diseases than in healthy populations.

Essentially, having certain antigens is tied to a slightly higher risk of developing a particular condition. This doesn't mean anyone carrying that antigen is destined to get sick. Likewise, someone can fall ill without having the antigen at all.

Regarding your specific lab work, I see you have HLA-DRB1*04, which can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.

However, it's far from being as straightforward as it looks. Within the HLA-DR4 category, there are over 30 subtypes (labeled HLA-DRB1*0401 through *0433). Only a few of these are actually linked to rheumatoid arthritis—most notably DRB1*0401 and DRB1*0404.

Your current report won't show those granular details because the typing wasn't performed at that level of depth.

For more on the connection between HLA and various diseases, take a look here: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/arti...7156/table/T1/

Jacob Scott12 said:Hi. I'm 17. Over the last couple of days, I've been getting blood work done for a routine pre-employment physical. Two days ago, they ran a standard complete blood count and a urinalysis; yesterday was the differential.

Common culprits for results like these include a recent viral infection—or even one you're currently fighting off—along with certain medications. If neither of those applies, you'll need an evaluation and follow-up with a hematologist. Definitely reach out to your primary care physician first.

hollowgardener50 said:What does a high ferritin level of 690 indicate? The patient is a 78-year-old female.

Hello.

These kinds of results can pop up in a wide range of scenarios: inflammation, infections, malignancies, liver or kidney issues, hemochromatosis, or even just excessive alcohol consumption—specifically beer. Obesity and diabetes are also on the list. Given your age, you really need to pay close attention to the possibility of malignant diseases.

Joshua Kim69 said:Please interpret these lab results for me:

Microbiology results following the bronchoscopy:

Microscopic specimen analysis: polymorphonuclear leukocytes Staphylococcus species (coagulase-negative) 10,000

Microscopic examination of the sample: acid-fast bacilli are NEGATIVE.

3. Microscopic sample preparation:Arthrographis sp. ml

Cytology report:

KA L: Bronchial epithelial cells.
KA D: Blood, bronchial epithelial cells.
Bronchial epithelial cell count.

From the blood work results:

- (P) PV-INR 0.96 (therapeutic range 2.00–3.50).

Tumorski notes:

(S) NSE 15.43 (< 16.30) Note: ECLIA Roche
(S) CYFRA 21-1 3.07 (< 3.30) Note: ECLIA Roche

Much appreciated.

Essentially, the cytology came back clear—no malignant cells were detected, and tumor markers are sitting right at the upper limit of the normal range. However, even with no signs of malignancy here, this doesn't completely rule out lung cancer. Regarding the microbiology, tests for mycobacteria (including the agent responsible for tuberculosis) were negative. They did pick up coagulase-negative staphylococcus, which is typically just a contaminant rather than an actual pathogen, along with a single fungus/mold. Molds like that are frequently isolated from the respiratory tract, skin, or nails; they’re generally considered contaminants and rarely cause issues unless there are visible changes in the nails where it originated. As for the PV levels, everything looks normal for someone not currently on anticoagulant therapy.

Chris Kim63 said:I thought they might have looked into those abdominal pains of mine as well, but maybe that wasn't on their radar or isn't part of the scope here. Thanks again—you've been a huge help!

No, the point of these searches isn't to analyze individual symptoms. It’s simply to check for genetic predispositions to certain diseases—specifically those that are already well-documented and established. I included the link to the chart so you can see exactly which conditions are covered. For now, the list remains relatively modest.

quietfox384 said:Could someone take a look at these lab results from my nurse? There's a suspicion of celiac disease.
Thanks. 🙂

total IgE. Immunoglobulin E. It’s the body’s primary trigger for allergic reactions—think of it as the biological alarm system that overreacts to harmless substances. When the immune system misidentifies something like pollen or peanuts as a threat, it pumps out IgE, which then binds to mast cells, setting the stage for histamine release. It's essentially an overzealous security detail responding to a guest who didn't bring an invite. 591 (klU/L, ref.interval up to 87)
IgM. 2,44 (g/L, ref. interval 0.4-2.3)
IgG and IgA levels are normal.

These results aren't a direct diagnosis for celiac disease. Instead, they're used to verify how reliable certain screening tests actually are—specifically when measuring IgA and IgG levels. It’s also about ruling out other conditions that might mimic those symptoms, like food allergies.

Specifically, what we’re looking at here is primarily an elevated IgE level. That points toward an allergic tendency, which is something that needs to be factored into the equation. An allergy can certainly run parallel to celiac disease; one doesn't rule out the other.

With celiac disease, you sometimes see low IgM or IgA levels, but that isn't what we're looking at here.

Chris Kim63 said:The suspicion pointed toward autoimmune disorders. raSjögren's, SAPHO... and then you have the multi-faceted stuff.

The lab results indicate a potential genetic predisposition for rheumatoid arthritis.

I’ve covered more ground on this topic in my earlier posts within this thread:

Maria Fisher46 said:The core logic behind this screening is simple: certain HLA antigens show up more frequently in people living with specific diseases than they do in the healthy population.

Look, the presence of certain antigens is linked to a slightly higher risk of developing a specific disease. That doesn't mean anyone carrying that HLA antigen is destined to get sick. It’s not a guarantee. On the flip side, you can also develop the condition even if you don't have that antigen at all.

Looking specifically at your results, I see you have HLA-DRB1*04. This can be linked to rheumatoid arthritis.

But things aren't nearly as straightforward as they appear at first glance. It turns out there are over 30 subtypes within HLA-DR4 (labeled HLA-DRB1*0401 through *0433). Only a handful of these are actually linked to rheumatoid arthritis—specifically DRB1*0401 and DRB1*0404.

It’s estimated that individuals carrying these specific subtypes face roughly four times the risk of developing rheumatoid arthritis compared to the general population—those who don't carry the antigen.

However, those specific supplement details won't show up in your lab results because the typing wasn't performed with that level of granularity.

For more details regarding the connection between HLA and specific diseases, take a look here: The data provided in this table outlines specific genetic markers and their associations. It serves as a technical breakdown of how certain HLA alleles correlate with various clinical presentations. Think of it like a blueprint showing which structural flaws might lead to specific systemic issues. For those tracking precise immunological correlations, this mapping is essential for understanding the underlying mechanics of the condition.

Are you dealing with any eye issues? (The note mentions H35, which is the ICD-10 code for "other retinal diseases.")

George Thompson63, your symptoms are quite unusual. That mention of a one-sided Tremor really stands out; it’s not typical for physiological or psychological tremors, nor is it standard for essential tremor—which usually starts on one side but eventually spreads to the other hand, even if the intensity varies between them. Given your age, you definitely need more testing to rule out things like thyroid issues, Wilson's disease, or metabolic imbalances...

If you don't mind me asking, did you have your evaluation done at Mayo Clinic? They are essentially the gold standard when it comes to involuntary movements, including Tremor. Since your case isn't textbook, it would be wise to see a neurologist who specializes specifically in movement disorders.

stormyharbor2 said:I was actually thinking about asking—if I head out on a long trip outside the States, does that mean I can't just pick up two bottles of my meds at once? Not sure what to do here...

There’s a standard protocol for this. Your doctor should know the drill. Instead of using an electronic prescription, they issue a paper one with a specific note stating the full course needs to be dispensed at once. Usually, you can get up to two boxes per paper script. If the doctor is unsure, they can simply call Blue Cross Blue Shield; the representatives will walk them through the procedure.

Once a workplace injury is officially recognized, you aren't paying a dime. There are no co-pays and zero out-of-pocket costs; everything is covered entirely by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). I should clarify one thing: we are talking about an injury formally classified as a work-related accident, not just some minor mishap that happened while you were on the clock. Your supplemental health insurance? Irrelevant. You won't be footing the bill for a single cent regarding the treatment of a recognized workplace injury.

Chris Kim63 said:On my lab report under
CH50, there's this note that says "0.2"
The reference range is 0.2-0.5 for normal, 0.7 is slightly low, 0.9 is low, and anything over 0.9 is very low.

My CH50 doesn't show a specific number, just "normal."

Does that note actually mean anything?
Or is the result actually great because it sits right at the bottom edge of the range? 😁
thanks.

The result is clean. It isn't exceptionally good, suspicious, or vague—it’s just simply normal.

Kimberly Bailey6 said:Hi, I need help interpreting these results:

Metabolites and substrates
(S)GLUCOSE 5.00 (ref. mmol/l 4.20 - 6.00 )
Postprandial Glucose Tests
Glucose 0' 5.0 (ref. mmol/L 6.1 - 7.0)
Glucose 120' 5.3 (ref. mmol/L < 7.8)

So, blood was drawn fasting and again 2 hours after eating.
I'm confused about the difference between glucose and GUK (glucose).
Why is the fasting glucose reference 4.20-6, but the GUK range starts at 6.1? By that logic, fasting glucose looks fine, but GUK fasting doesn't?
Why aren't they the same thing?

The results are normal. You're right—fasting blood glucose should be between 4.2 and 6.0 mmol/L for someone in their 20s or 30s if the sample used was serum. That doesn't apply to capillary blood ("finger prick" tests), where the values differ.

The value of 6.1 to 7.0 mmol/L refers to impaired fasting glucose in venous plasma. Essentially, anyone with fasting glucose in that specific range wouldn't have a "normal" result; they would be flagged for impaired fasting glucose, provided the 2-hour value remains under 7.8 mmol/L.

It’s phrased awkwardly, but those trained to interpret these labs know what they mean.

Most importantly: your results are perfectly fine!

Sandra Hernandez9 said:Hello, a friend of mine got his results from the Mayo Clinic (Dr. Renata Žunec) last Friday. He went to his primary doctor, then a dermatologist (because of some spots on his nails), and even saw a few others at our local hospital, but nobody can actually explain them to him! 👎
If there's a kind soul here who can help, please do, because it looks like he'll have to make another trip to Chicago just to figure this out, which isn't possible for a while due to work. I'd be so grateful!

The results are as follows:
HLA-A
2 - 9
method: CDC (serological)

HLA-B
12 - 18

HLA-C*
02 - 07

HLA-DRB1*
11 - 14

HLA-DQB1*
NT - NT
method: PCR-SSO/SSP (molecular)

Note: M 07.3

You are being evaluated for suspected psoriasis or psoriatic arthritis, I assume that's what they told you.

Based on these results, there aren't any strong genetic predispositions for those conditions. You do have HLA-C*07, which some studies link to a slightly higher risk of psoriatic arthritis, so that could indicate a potential genetic predisposition.

Otherwise, none of your other HLA types carry any particularly high risk for other HLA-related diseases (like rheumatic diseases), so you could say this report is actually quite favorable.

Keep in mind: HLA only indicates a risk factor; it cannot confirm or rule out a diagnosis. People without certain HLA markers can still get sick, and people with the markers might never develop the condition.

ironbison142 said:Can anyone tell me if I'm anemic or not? I have a gastroscopy scheduled in two weeks, so I'm wondering if these results suggest I might have an ulcer that's bleeding.

erythrocytes * 4.89 ( o ) 10e12/L 4.34 - 5.72
(vK) hemoglobin * 155 ( o ) g/L m 138 - 175
(vK) hematocrit * 0.437 (o ) 0.415 - 0.530
(vK) MCV * 89.4 ( o ) fL 83.0 - 97.0

You aren't anemic, which is a good sign, but that doesn't rule out an ulcer or any potential bleeding.

Betty Diaz84 said:Hello, I would appreciate it if someone could comment on my lab results. I will list only the ones that fall outside the reference ranges:

Female, 25 years old, PCOS

Androstenedione 15.36 (ref. 2.13-10.47)
DHEA-S 9.87 (ref. 1.8-7.7)
LH 18.48 (ref. 2.4-13)
Leukocyte esterase pos. (ref. neg)
Leukocytes 5-10 (ref. 0-2)
Squamous epithelial cells 5-10 (ref. 0-1)

The tests were ordered by my gynecologist, so I just want to know if these results are okay or if I should undergo further testing (my follow-up appointment isn't for almost a month).

Thanks in advance 🙂

The hormone profile aligns with a PCOS diagnosis, though the androstenedione level is quite elevated. It might be worth checking other adrenal hormones and perhaps considering imaging, like an ultrasound, to start with. What other hormones or tests have been done?

Regarding the urine sample, there is a significant amount of squamous epithelium. If you aren't experiencing any symptoms, it was likely just a contaminated sample from improper collection.

Thomas Jones4 said:I’d appreciate some insight on this. I had bloodwork done this week, and everything looks fine except for my eosinophil count at 7.4% (0.0-7.0) and lymphocytes which seem high at 44.4% (20.0-46.0). How high is "high" in this context, given that I haven't been sick or dealing with any inflammation lately? Also, back in October last year, my eosinophil (7.5) and lymphocytes (46.2) were also elevated, and my lymphocytes were high back in 2014 as well. How much of a concern is this?

I also checked my thyroid levels; TSH is borderline at 4.80 (0.35-4.94), while FT4 and FT3 are normal. My doctor wants me to repeat these in a month...
Male, 29 years old.

Thanks in advance.

You can't interpret a percentage alone without knowing the absolute count. A lymphocyte percentage of 44.4% isn't particularly high.

dessylessy Asks:
Got my thyroid lab results back today.
Anti-TG at 3.1 (reference range: under 4.11).
Anti-TPO levels came back at less than 0.50. Reference range is under 5.61.
Methodology: CMIA
The first value looks fine to me, but that second one seems low. Does anyone know if that actually matters? Thanks.

No, those results are perfectly clean. There shouldn't be any room for debate.

Mark Anderson90 said:Hey. If anyone can make sense of these latest lab results, I’d appreciate it. (Male, 22, non-smoker. 6'1", 183 lbs.)

ERC: 5.60 – 5.77. Reference range: 4.34 – 5.70. Just a hair over the line.
HGB: 162 to 173. Reference range: 138 to 175.
MCV at 84. Reference range is 83 to 97.2.
MCH sits at 29 to 30... Reference range is 27.4 to 33.9.
MCHC levels sitting between 347 and 352... compared to the standard range of 320 to 345.
RDW 12.5 ... [Ref Range: 9–15]
RBC count: 252 to 287... 158 - 424.
MPV 7.1. Reference range: 6.8 – 10.4.

RTC 27: 5.0 - 21.6
SE 3 ....................................................... 2 - 13

Urea at 3.8. Reference range is 2.8 to 8.3.
Urati: 342 ................................... 182 - 403
Iron levels at 16. Reference range: 11 - 32.
TIBC 70.5 .................................. 49 - 72
UIBC at 54.3. Reference range is 25 to 54. Just barely over the line.

pH 7.367 ..................................... 7.350 - 7.450
pCO2 (kPa) 43.50 (5.79) ................. 35.34 - 48.12 (4.7 - 6.4)
TCO2: 25.8. Reference range: 22–29.
Bicarbonate (st) 24.4 (ref: 23.6). Normal range: 18 - 23.
BE (ecf) 1.1 (0.9)......................... 2 - 3 (2 - 3)
pO2: 113.8. Reference range: 54.9 – 79.7. High.
Partial pressure of O2: 15.1... normal range is 7.3 - 10.6.
O2 saturation: 98%. Normal range: 94–98%.

Serum ferritin at 52.8. Reference range: 30 – 233.
Waiting on my Erythropoietin levels. Just sitting here, waiting for the results to come in.

From what I can gather, you’re being tested for suspected polycythemia vera. Without further data or lab results, it’s difficult to provide a meaningful answer.

casualpilot8 said:I just went in for *Listeria monocytogenes* serology testing, given my history of recurrent miscarriages. If anyone here has dealt with this, please reach out—I’m struggling to make sense of these results. Here is what I have: *Listeria monocytogenes* IlgA1/2 a - negative.
Listeria monocytogenes IgA 4 b - neg
Listeria monocytogenes IgM 1/2a - neg
Listeria monocytogenes IgM 4 b - neg
Listeria monocytogenes IgG 1/2 a - pos 1:100
Listeria monocytogenes IgG 4 b - weak pos 1:100
Thanks.

Listeria serology is slippery territory—ambiguous and controversial. In short, these tests aren't reliable for definitive diagnosis. They suggest there's no active infection, and while a weakly positive IgG could indicate an old contact, you can't rule out a false positive either. Generally speaking, this shouldn't impact any future pregnancies.

Lisa Carter33 said:Can someone explain these blood results?
Female, 35, feeling lethargic and tired, maybe a UTI (on my period right now so I can't provide a urine sample).

Everything is within range except:

Lymphocytes 3.5×10^9 g/l
WBC 8.4
segment neutrophils 49.3 rel %
lymphocyte 41.3 rel %
monocytes 7.0 rel %

CRP 0.2

So, the only thing high is my lymphocytes; the limit is 3.35 x 10^9.

How dangerous is this?

Thanks
hypochondriac

Nothing in these results stands out as an explanation for fatigue or a suspected UTI.

It’s been quiet here for a while. My apologies for the delay; keeping up with every single question on this thread is becoming a bit of a challenge with my current daily workload.

hm00 Asks:
Back in November 2015, he was diagnosed with Hashimoto, which prompted a round of blood work. At the time, the labs looked like this:

RBC count: 5.67
Hgb 15.5
AT&T 0.461
MCV 81.3
MCH: 27.3
MCHC: 336.
RDW 12.8.
Platelets: 251
MPV at 11.7.
Ferritin: 11.

We redid the labs last week. This time we went private to a different lab instead of using the local community health center like we did before. Everything came back normal this time around:

RBC count: 5.52
Hgb 14.7
AT&T 0.451
MCV 84.
MCH: 28.2
MCHC 326.
RDW: 13.5
Platelets: 202
MPV 7.3
Iron levels at 17. Low.
TIBC: 61 (Range: 49–72)
UIBC: 44 (Ref: 25-54)
Ferritin: 52.5 (Ref range: 20-250)

He ate a pancake about seven hours before the blood draw, so I’m questioning if those results are even worth looking at. Back when his iron was sitting at 9, he had hit the gym for a heavy lifting session the night before the test. I wonder if that could have skewed the numbers.
His doctor is sending him in for an occult blood test. 😢

Dietary intake likely played a role in the iron levels, though it wouldn't have touched the other parameters. The follow-up results look normal, even if the ferritin level is still hovering near the lower limit. There’s no anemia here—that much is certain. Whether the iron stores are truly optimal is harder to pin down. Based on that MCV value, Beck Jr. and his colleagues suggest a ferritin above 100 would be a definitive indicator that no deficiency exists (see *The Iron Screen*, Human Pathology 1981;12:123-126).

Maria Kern71 said:Hi. Had bloodwork done yesterday. I dealt with mononucleosis three months ago and felt like I was fully recovered by the third month. However, for the last four weeks, I’ve been dealing with constant fatigue and brain fog. Yesterday, I ran a fever, and my throat is starting to act up again. Is it possible for this to have come back?
Elevated levels:
Lymphocytes at 59.0 (normal range: 20-46).

Lowered levels:
MCV at 80.6. Reference range starts at 83.0. Slightly low.
MCH at 25.6. Normal range starts at 27.4. It’s low.
MCHC 317 (Range: 320-345). Slightly under the mark.
Segment neutrophils at 1.26 (normal range: 2.06–6.49).
Segmented neutrophils at 27.9%. Normal range is 44–72%.
Alanine aminotransferase 9 (10-36)

Based solely on the lab results you provided, there isn't enough information to answer that question. It’s possible, sure, but you’d need definitive proof—something like serology or a PCR test—to actually confirm it.

dessylessy Asks:
I went to my OB-GYN for some swabs.
The results that have come in so far are all negative, except for this one:

Lab results: Cervical swab—aerobic bacterial and microbiological culture, positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Microbiology lab results.
Microscopic findings: abundant PMNs and Gram-positive bacilli.

Saprophytic bacteria. They live off the dead stuff. Decomposers.

Non-albicans Candida. It’s a different beast entirely. Unlike the standard strain, these varieties tend to be more stubborn and less predictable when you're trying to manage them. It isn't just about one single culprit; it's a whole spectrum of opportunistic players.
In very limited numbers.

Any quick insights would be appreciated (I'm feeling a bit anxious about this)...

Anyone know what this means?

An elevated PMNL count can be a sign of inflammation. It doesn't necessarily mean there’s an active infection; it could be a lingering trace from a recent one—in which case, a follow-up swab in a month should show a decrease—or it could be a precursor to something coming on, where a new test would show an increase. Everything else looks normal. Honestly, it’s difficult to interpret these results without knowing the clinical reasoning behind why the swabs were taken in the first place. We also need to determine if there's any indication to test specifically for mycoplasma, ureaplasma, or chlamydia.

Bradley Barrett5 said:Can someone help me make sense of these lab results? I tried digging through the internet myself, but I'm not having much luck. Most values look fine, but a few are sitting outside the normal range.
WBC count at 10.3. Reference range is 3.4–9.7. Slightly elevated.
Neutrophil count at 40.0 (Normal range: 44–72).
Lymphocytes at 5.40 (Ref range: 1.19–3.35).
Lymphocyte count at 51.5. Reference range is 20-46.
Clinical Biochemistry.
ALT 43 (range 10-36).
CK 195 (0-153)

It’s impossible to make sense of these results without knowing what prompted the labs in the first place. You have an elevated lymphocyte count, which often shows up during a viral infection, alongside some mild inflammation, muscle damage, and a liver lesion. While this could all fit the profile of a standard virus, there are other possibilities on the table. Without the clinical context, interpreting these findings is just guesswork.

Sean Gomez51 said:How long after my primary care physician sends over a lab order for me to get bloodwork done at the community health center can I actually go in? Technically, the referral shouldn't be more than a month old, though they don't always strictly enforce that.

Hmm, if memory serves, about a month? 🤔

electriclynx44 said:Can someone explain these out-of-range values?

Leuk 12.7 (3.4-9.7) H
MCHC 353 (320-345) H
lymphocytes 18.9 (20.0-46.0) L
Nesg. Neutro (K) 6.0 (0.0-4.0) H

If anyone could clarify these numbers—I get blood drawn every six months because I had kidney surgery two years ago. My hormone levels are fine right now. Thanks.

Any symptoms? Any signs of an acute bacterial infection?

Jeremy Grant said:Hello.
Has anyone dealt with elevated Leuk (10.7), sedimentation (15), and total calcium 2.63 in their bloodwork? My GP isn't concerned. Everything else looks normal. For context, I had gallbladder surgery ten months ago.

You should list all the results along with the reason for such a detailed workup. What specifically are you trying to find or rule out?

Since it looks like some questions have been sitting there unanswered for quite a while, I’ll step in and provide some input.

Richard Lopez5 said:Despite everything else looking normal on my blood work, my alanine aminotransferase and ferritin levels are coming back low. Everything else in the CBC is fine.
My symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, and intestinal cramping. I’m dealing with irregular bowel movements or diarrhea, along with an intolerance for fatty and sugary foods. On top of that, there are headaches, fatigue, and shortness of breath even during mild exertion.

Based on what you've described, your first step should be scheduling an appointment with a gastroenterologist.

Casey Doyle3 said:Anyone have any thoughts on this?
Saw my doctor today. She mentioned these results could be pointing toward anemia.
I have to go get my iron levels checked. They're telling me I might need to bring a chair to account for potential occult bleeding.
From what I’ve gathered, anemia is defined by low hemoglobin, hematocrit, or erythrocyte counts. MCV is really just a descriptor for those levels. So, how does it make sense to be considered anemic if my erythrocyte count is actually elevated, while my hemoglobin and hematocrit stay within the normal range?
I’m completely lost. Everything just stopped making sense.

You definitely don't have anemia. By definition, anemia requires low erythrocyte counts, hemoglobin, or hematocrit, so you're spot on there. That specific mismatch between your MCV and MCHC is unusual, though. One rare scenario where you see a low MCV paired with a high MCHC is a type of hemolytic anemia called spherocytosis, but I highly doubt that’s what’s happening here. It is much more likely just a physiological variation in your results. Generally speaking, an MCV below 80 shouldn't be a cause for concern, nor should the MCHC unless it climbs above 360. These numbers look borderline rather than outright abnormal. When the MCV dips slightly, it can suggest low iron stores—which is best confirmed by checking your ferritin levels. Low iron means it’s either not being taken in enough or it's being lost somewhere. In men following a standard American diet, insufficient intake isn't usually the culprit, so we're left with loss, which typically points toward internal bleeding. That is likely the logic your doctor is following. My gut feeling is that this line of investigation won't turn up much, but we'll see. Good luck.

Sam Kim12 said:I’d appreciate some perspective on my blood work. My MCHC and TIBC are coming back low, but everything else looks solid—erythrocyte 5.00, hemoglobin at 143 g/L, MCH 28.6, MCV 91.1, Fe 11.0, UIBC 37.0, and so on. Any thoughts?

I had this blood panel done because of some gynecological issues—specifically lower abdominal pain, missed periods, and spotting between cycles. My Pap smear came back clear and the ultrasound was normal too. There was an *E. coli* infection found in my cervical swab, but that was cleared up with antibiotics and everything seems fine now, except for these blood results.

It really depends on how far off those MCHC and TIBC values actually are.

Michelle Ortiz said:Need help interpreting these results. 21-year-old male.

erythrocyte 5.45
Hemoglobin 149
Hematocrit 0.448
MCV 82.2 ref 83-97.2
MCH 27.3 ref 27.4-33.9
MCHC 333
RDW 13.3
Platelets 219
MPV 12.4 ref 6.8 - 10.4
iron 9 ref 11-32
ferritin 52

Everything looks normal except for the ones where I listed the reference ranges. How much should these deviations worry me?

What was the reason for running these tests?

This topic is outdated. A relevant discussion regarding UFOs already exists, so I'm locking this one down.

Link to the thread: http://www.example.com/thread/808699

I'm in complete agreement with the points made above.

That's the key.

Angela Green2 said:Thanks for getting back to me. Just to clarify, I'm not on any anticoagulants, despite my heart condition..

Rest easy. The results look fine.

Chris Kim63 said:EBV VCA IgG: POSITIVE 112.0 U/ml (Negative is anything under 15).
EBNA IgG came back positive at 203.0 U/ml. For context, anything under 5 is considered negative.
CMV IgG came back positive at 86.3 U/ml. For context, anything under 12 is considered negative.
HSV 1 IgG: Positive.
VZV IgG came back positive at 30 VE (anything under 9 is considered negative).
HHV-6 IgG came back positive at 39. Anything under 9 is considered negative.

Could someone please help me make sense of these results?
Everything else on the lab report came back negative.
Thanks!

Look at it this way: you’ve already been exposed to all those triggers. You've built up immunity because you've actually fought them off before. We're talking about the usual suspects—EBV, which is the primary culprit behind mono; CMV, the second most common cause of the same thing; plus herpes simplex, chickenpox, and roseola. None of these viruses are linked to what you're feeling right now. That much is certain.

Richard Lopez5 said:😕Alanine aminotransferase 9 L U/L
Ferritin at 16 mcg/L. Low.
Gamma globulins at 21.73 H.
In my urine:
Opal protein powders.
Bloodwork came back positive.
High erythrocyte count. Too many.
The density of the squamous epithelial cells is quite high.
Much appreciated.
Bacteria levels are through the roof.
Everything else seems to be within the normal range. If anyone could offer a more expert perspective than my own and let me know if these values are cause for alarm, I’d truly appreciate it. Best regards.

Low ferritin means your iron stores are depleted. You’re either losing it somewhere—maybe internal bleeding?—or you aren't getting enough through your diet. As for that low ALT, it’s a non-issue; the results look fine. Regarding gamma globulins, are we talking percentages or g/L? I need to see the full electrophoresis report. Finally, the blood in your urine: Is it just menstruation? Could be a urinary tract issue, kidney stones, or even sand in the bladder. An infection seems less likely given that your Leuk levels are low.

Casey Doyle3 said:I had some blood work done. I’ve been dealing with intermittent pain in my lower right flank—usually hits after heavy physical labor. Some days we're pulling 11-hour shifts doing intense manual work.
So, everything looks fine, except for this:
Erythrocyte 5.85 (upper limit 5.72).
MCV 81.7. The lower limit is 83.
I compared this to my blood work from three years ago. Back then, my erythrocyte was 5.68 and my MCV was exactly 83.
Can someone who actually knows their way around this stuff explain what might be causing vomiting?

Nothing specific. Just write out the full report.

redcyclist7 said:So, I just had a colonoscopy, and here are the results:

The scope reached the terminal ileum, which looks normal, and they took a biopsy there. About 20 cm from the anal verge, there's a zone of hyperemia, which was also biopsied.

I- 4 biopsies of the terminal ileum
II- " biopsies of the rectosigmoid

My doctor mentioned some inflammation based on previous stool tests... but I don't really get what this report means. Can someone explain?

Anyway, Happy Easter, everyone!

It simply means there's hyperemia—increased blood flow to the lining, usually due to inflammation—detected about 20 cm from the anus. They took samples. Now you just wait for the pathology. There’s definitely some inflammation present, but the report doesn't specify the cause yet.