Carol Price4 said:I totally missed that one—where did you read 🤔
Nowhere. I didn't read it anywhere, but it just follows from the logic you guys taught me:
1. if I follow the cash basis principle and can reduce contributions on the payment date, that can't possibly happen in the first year of business; it would have to start in the second. In year one, the tax base would be overstated in that scenario.
2. if I'm following the cash basis, then I wouldn't be able to reduce the base on December 31st in the final year either.
The first part seems right. As for the second, maybe I don't have enough pieces of the puzzle—I'm not an expert here:
IRS regulations—Section 31, Paragraph 3—describe what qualifies as business expenses during a business dissolution.
It mentions unpaid obligations (to vendors and other business-related liabilities). The common thread is they were incurred by Dec 31 and remain unpaid.
Contribution calculations might only happen the day after.
If it’s true that I can include those, then the final year includes the value of contributions from the last two years under regular payments. So, if the tax is calculated on a base halved by contributions, it somewhat corrects the consequence from year one. "Somewhat," because there could still be discrepancies when looking at each year individually.
If I can't include the contribution in the final year, then once again, the tax base is overstated.
Which of this is actually correct?
How are contributions for the second year of business paid? Again, only at the end of the year?
How is the tax for the second year of business paid? Only at the end of the year?
Please, just answer these three questions and I'll be eternally grateful! 🙂