Posts by electricharbor30

Harold Anderson3 said:From what I can see, the hurdle here is that she doesn't want to be hospitalized, but it might be (or even likely is) necessary. When you're in a facility for a month or two under 24-hour medical supervision, it's much easier to find the right treatment plan than it is after a single 45-minute talk. People are often hospitalized for much milder issues than schizophrenia.
Secondly, regarding the diagnosis itself, it doesn't mean much to me personally. It changes constantly; in my five years of psychiatric treatment, I think I've had about ten different diagnoses. My latest is F20.0, but after my last hospital stay, it was F20.4 (postschizophrenic depression). One doctor I see for psychotherapy told me my condition looks more like bipolar disorder, while my primary doctor insists it's probably schizoaffective disorder because of my frequent mood swings. Yet, the diagnosis remains F20.0. So, the label itself isn't the most important thing to me; it's more about the medications I take.
Maybe try talking to your sister again about agreeing to hospitalization—try explaining that it isn't a prison, it's a hospital, and that she will actually feel better.
You can develop schizophrenia at any time, though it most commonly manifests around age 18.

I actually have a friend who deals with psychosis and is unable to work, and since she doesn't have a formal employment history, she receives disability payments from the state$417.

driftinggull21 said:

I don't understand why they would assign a schizophrenia diagnosis immediately. Typically, for a first psychotic episode, you wouldn't label it schizophrenia, even if it seems obvious. Usually, you only record a schizophrenia diagnosis once a decompensation recurs. That is how my doctors explained it, and that was the standard procedure in several cases I am aware of.

Yes, it is certainly not standard practice to list F20 right after the first psychotic decompensation. Even when the schizophrenia is clearly evident, clinicians often opt for F23 due to the "psychological impact." Similarly, there are patients who clearly meet the criteria for F20, yet the diagnosis is never officially recorded because the therapist realizes the patient wouldn't be able to handle it if it were verified.
Therefore, while it is technically possible to document F20 immediately in rare instances, it is truly not the norm.

Just asking, is there any chance a younger family member could receive disability benefits or some form of government assistance, given that he is unable to work and his diagnosis is F20?

They should contact the American Statistical Association in their local area.

thanks

I was just wondering, is there any actual chance for a younger family member to get some kind of disability benefits, or like, any sort of government assistance in any form, seeing as they aren't able to work and the diagnosis is F20?