I was wondering if someone might be able to help me make sense of my mom's coronary angiography results. We received them in the mail today and, well, we aren't exactly clear on what they mean... Something feels off, but we just can't put our finger on it...
The report reads as follows:
Height: 5'6" (168 cm)
Weight: 143 lbs (65 kg)
Referral Diagnosis: CORONARY ARTERY DISEASE
Procedure: Coronary Angiography; Left Ventriculography
Left coronary artery: main trunk is thick and short, normal morphology.
LAD: atherosclerotic changes in the proximal segment. Bifurcation lesion type 0.0.1 with 95% stenosis.
LCx: 95% stenosis at OM1.
Right coronary artery: dominant, 90% stenosis in the proximal segment, 90% stenosis in the distal segment, and a severe CTO in the PL branch. Post-occlusive flow is shown via well-developed heterologous collaterals.
Left ventriculography: akinesis in part of the inferior segment.
LV: mmHg
AO: mmHg
LVEDVI: mmHg
LVESVI l/m2
EF 65%
Conclusion: Atherosclerotic disease of the left and right coronary arteries with significant stenoses in D1, OM1, and RCA, along with collateralized CTO in the RCA PL branch. Systolic function of the left ventricle is well-preserved.
What does all of this actually imply? What kind of surgical procedure are we looking at here? And how serious is this diagnosis overall?...
I am kindly asking if anyone could help explain these findings... Thank you, thank you so much! 🙏
My apologies if I've misstated anything...
The report reads as follows:
Height: 5'6" (168 cm)
Weight: 143 lbs (65 kg)
Referral Diagnosis: CORONARY ARTERY DISEASE
Procedure: Coronary Angiography; Left Ventriculography
Left coronary artery: main trunk is thick and short, normal morphology.
LAD: atherosclerotic changes in the proximal segment. Bifurcation lesion type 0.0.1 with 95% stenosis.
LCx: 95% stenosis at OM1.
Right coronary artery: dominant, 90% stenosis in the proximal segment, 90% stenosis in the distal segment, and a severe CTO in the PL branch. Post-occlusive flow is shown via well-developed heterologous collaterals.
Left ventriculography: akinesis in part of the inferior segment.
LV: mmHg
AO: mmHg
LVEDVI: mmHg
LVESVI l/m2
EF 65%
Conclusion: Atherosclerotic disease of the left and right coronary arteries with significant stenoses in D1, OM1, and RCA, along with collateralized CTO in the RCA PL branch. Systolic function of the left ventricle is well-preserved.
What does all of this actually imply? What kind of surgical procedure are we looking at here? And how serious is this diagnosis overall?...
I am kindly asking if anyone could help explain these findings... Thank you, thank you so much! 🙏
My apologies if I've misstated anything...