MRI of the ankle joint

I suffered an ankle injury less than a year ago. The ER doctors acted like it was nothing, just telling me to follow up in three weeks. Two weeks later, my primary care physician refused to give me a referral, claiming everything looked fine and that I had simply stretched a ligament, which supposedly caused the swelling.
After a month and a half, I went back and showed her the persistent swelling, and finally, she gave me a referral to an orthopedist. The specialist took one look at me and ordered an ultrasound, which I couldn't get for another month. That scan revealed this:

"Normal anterior talofibular ligament; complete rupture of the deltoid ligament with hyperplastic fibrous repair lacking normal ligamentous structure. Peroneal effusion around the flexor tendon."

Following that, I started physical therapy—ultrasound, magnetic therapy, and whatnot—but this all started months after the initial injury.
Once the therapy wrapped up, I went for a checkup. They suggested a few more sessions before coming back. Ortoed examined my leg and basically said everything looks fine, though some swelling might linger while it fully heals.
However, I went ahead and got an MRI, and the results tell a completely different story:
This is what it says:

"Pathological bone edema is visible in the calcaneus during today's exam; this could be due to static changes or potentially recent microtrauma, though there are no definitive signs of a fracture.
The plantar aponeurosis appears normal.
Chronic cystic formations and layered effusion are visible in the laterodorsal contour at the level of the ankle joint within the fibulotalar joint space, along with ligamentous stretching suggesting a Grade II lesion at the fibular attachment, possibly indicating degenerative or post-traumatic active subchondral osteoarthritis.
A Grade III osteochondral lesion on the dorsolateral roof of the talus, measuring 7.5 mm, is most visible on the transverse section.
On the contralateral side, there is an inactive anteromedial osteochondral lesion.
Chronic changes and re-rupture in the sinus tarsi involving all three ligaments.
Initial moderate osteoarthritis is visible at the medial aspect of the fibula near the fibular joint space.
Discrete effusion in the interosseous membrane zone, with a small 4 mm osteochondral change on the lateral edge of the tibia.
Achilles tendon is inactive."

Can anyone provide some concrete answers regarding these findings from the orthopedist?
I have no idea where I stand, and frankly, this doesn't look good.
Scanned a few weeks ago.

No response?
Is it actually possible that there isn't a single expert out there capable of weighing in on this? 😕😕

Michael Harris6 said:I suffered an ankle injury less than a year ago. At the ER, they told me it was nothing and just to come back for a follow-up in three weeks. After two weeks, my primary care physician refused to give me a referral, insisting everything was fine and that I had just strained a ligament, which caused the swelling.
A month and a half later, I went back to show her the swelling, and finally, she gave me a referral to an orthopedic specialist. The orthopedist examined me and ordered an ultrasound, which I didn't get until a month later. The results showed

"Normal anterior talofibular ligament; complete rupture of the deltoid ligament with hyperplastic fibrous repair lacking normal ligament structure. Peroneal effusion around the flexor tendon."

After that, I started physical therapy, ultrasound, magnetic therapy, and things like that—but only several months after the initial injury.
Once the therapy was done, I went for a check-up. They told me to do a few more sessions and then return. Ortoed looked at my leg afterward and said everything looks okay, though the ankle might stay swollen for a while until it fully heals..
However, I went for an MRI, and it gave me the exact opposite news:
It reads:

"Pathological bone edema is visible in the calcaneus during today's exam; this could be due to static changes or recent microtrauma, though there are no definitive signs of a fracture.
The plantar aponeurosis appears normal.
Chronic cystic formations and layered effusion are seen in the laterodorsal contour at the level of the ankle joint, specifically in the fibulotalar joint space dorsally, along with ligament stretching suggesting a Grade II lesion at the fibular attachment; possible degenerative and post-traumatic active subchondral osteoarthritis.
An osteochondral lesion on the dorsolateral roof of the talus, measuring 7.5 mm in length, is a Grade III finding, most visible on the transverse section.
On the contralateral side, there is an inactive anteromedial deep osteochondral lesion.
Chronic changes and re-rupture in the sinus tarsi at the level of all three ligaments.
Initially visible moderate osteoarthritis in the medial aspect of the fibula within the fibular joint area.
Discrete effusion in the interosseous membrane zone, plus a small 4 mm osteochondral change on the lateral edge of the tibia.
Achilles heel is inactive."

Could I please get some concrete answers regarding these results from you, Doctor?
I have no idea where I stand, and it doesn't look good at all.
Scanned a few weeks ago.

Time is the only cure here.👍
There are no indications for surgery based on this; it’s just therapy.

I honestly can't tell if these results mean I'm headed straight for surgery or what.
Total shot in the dark right now,🤷 but I’ve got an appointment with an orthopedic specialist in two and a half weeks. They'll be the ones to decide my next move and lay out the plan.
Until then, I'm staying off it.

My ankle is still acting up on the inner side from that injury, and I’m stuck waiting over two weeks just to see a specialist once they get back from vacation...
It’s bizarre, honestly. My physical therapist told me straight up that there isn't even a surgical option for an ankle injury like this, yet my own research says otherwise. 🙄
I can't wrap my head around why anyone would claim a procedure isn't possible when it clearly is. 😠
The doctor at the Mayo Clinic said surgery isn't an option for the ankle, and my GP and PT were all on the same page! Then, lo and behold, I find out about arthroscopic procedures that can actually provide massive relief and potentially save the joint.
Can someone please explain the logic here? Why lie and say these types of injuries aren't operable, only for it to turn out that they were just being dishonest?
WHY?

How’s Michael Harris6 doing these days—what was the final verdict on his situation, did he end up going under the knife? I actually managed to mangle my own ankle back on September 9th, 2010—so, nearly six months ago now—and it’s still giving me hell. As far as walking or general stability goes, I'm doing alright, I suppose, but I can't bend my leg forward... I can't squat, I can't jump, nothing. For someone who lives an active lifestyle, it’s incredibly frustrating. Now I’m just sitting around waiting for an MRI; the doctor hinted that surgery is likely looking inevitable.

Also, does anyone happen to know if you get the MRI results immediately? I'm planning to head out to a clinic in Chicago from the city, and I was hoping there wouldn't be some long, drawn-out wait for the images after the scan is finished.