#1 ·
Hey everyone,
I’m looking for some insight or maybe someone with actual medical expertise who can help me make sense of this.
I’m 26. Before this whole vascular mess happened, I was a professional dancer. Back in January 2009, I ended up in the hospital at Los Angeles Lakers Medical Center because a Doppler scan showed an occlusion in my left popliteal artery. It started with this intense pain in my calf, my big toe swelled up, and my entire leg—from the knee down—went totally pale.
Here’s the quick rundown of my history:
Partial thrombosis of the left popliteal artery, treated with selective intra-arterial thrombolysis using alteplase, with suspected cystic degeneration of the popliteal artery adventitia.
Thrombophilia (homozygous for FDA, PAI polymorphism on both alleles - 1).
Homocysteine levels were within the normal range—so no substitution therapy was needed. Activated protein C resistance tests came back normal too.
Six months after being discharged, I was on Marivarin, then they did a follow-up Doppler.
"The popliteal and ATP show continuous flow with satisfactory velocity and preserved spectra. The distal part of the ADP shows slightly weaker flow, but the artery has visible flow and a preserved spectrum; this could be due to spasmodic changes. The distal portion of the fibular artery looks similar but shows normal Doppler spectra. Given that the arterial occlusion had a secondary etiology (prolonged excessive traction stress on the arterial wall, assuming underlying cystic adventitial degeneration) and since more than six months have passed since the vascular incident—combined with the practically normal Doppler findings for the popliteal-crural level of the left leg—I suggest discontinuing anticoagulant therapy."
That was back in the summer of 2009. Everything was fine after that—the pain just vanished. Once I felt better, I started training again, though just recreationally.
Then, out of nowhere, the pain came roaring back recently. I got another Doppler done, and the indices were super low—dorsalis pedis at 0.44 and posterior tibial at 0.59.
I had an MRA done right after, but I’m still waiting on those results.
So, here’s my question. What can actually be done here? If we're talking about a clot again, why would it just show up like this? Or is it the cyst?
Honestly, my biggest worry is staying active post-op. Are there any solutions that would let me get back to full training after surgery? Or am I stuck babying this knee forever because of that specific artery...?
Thanks in advance.
I’m looking for some insight or maybe someone with actual medical expertise who can help me make sense of this.
I’m 26. Before this whole vascular mess happened, I was a professional dancer. Back in January 2009, I ended up in the hospital at Los Angeles Lakers Medical Center because a Doppler scan showed an occlusion in my left popliteal artery. It started with this intense pain in my calf, my big toe swelled up, and my entire leg—from the knee down—went totally pale.
Here’s the quick rundown of my history:
Partial thrombosis of the left popliteal artery, treated with selective intra-arterial thrombolysis using alteplase, with suspected cystic degeneration of the popliteal artery adventitia.
Thrombophilia (homozygous for FDA, PAI polymorphism on both alleles - 1).
Homocysteine levels were within the normal range—so no substitution therapy was needed. Activated protein C resistance tests came back normal too.
Six months after being discharged, I was on Marivarin, then they did a follow-up Doppler.
"The popliteal and ATP show continuous flow with satisfactory velocity and preserved spectra. The distal part of the ADP shows slightly weaker flow, but the artery has visible flow and a preserved spectrum; this could be due to spasmodic changes. The distal portion of the fibular artery looks similar but shows normal Doppler spectra. Given that the arterial occlusion had a secondary etiology (prolonged excessive traction stress on the arterial wall, assuming underlying cystic adventitial degeneration) and since more than six months have passed since the vascular incident—combined with the practically normal Doppler findings for the popliteal-crural level of the left leg—I suggest discontinuing anticoagulant therapy."
That was back in the summer of 2009. Everything was fine after that—the pain just vanished. Once I felt better, I started training again, though just recreationally.
Then, out of nowhere, the pain came roaring back recently. I got another Doppler done, and the indices were super low—dorsalis pedis at 0.44 and posterior tibial at 0.59.
I had an MRA done right after, but I’m still waiting on those results.
So, here’s my question. What can actually be done here? If we're talking about a clot again, why would it just show up like this? Or is it the cyst?
Honestly, my biggest worry is staying active post-op. Are there any solutions that would let me get back to full training after surgery? Or am I stuck babying this knee forever because of that specific artery...?
Thanks in advance.