Richard Howard55 said:I’d suggest accepting the response with reservations. It seems like we're just looking at a secondary supplement here, which shouldn't trigger any Value Added Tax obligations.
Otherwise, things are starting to get a bit ridiculous.
Anyway, let me know once you figure out the actual protocol.
Richard Howard55 said:I’d suggest accepting the response with reservations. It seems like we're just looking at a secondary supplement here, which shouldn't trigger any Value Added Tax obligations.
Otherwise, things are starting to get a bit ridiculous.
Anyway, let me know once you figure out the actual protocol.
ruggedmaker2 said:He's doing the work for you, so are you invoicing him?
I don't get it.
I don't see any Sales Tax involved at all, just income tax since it's a contractor deal. Correct me if I'm wrong.
Alright, let me give you the answer. It’s exactly what I suspected, though it sounds just as absurd to me as it did to you, so I wasn't even sure myself (
the folks at Wells Fargo and the CPA Handbook gave me the answer).
Section 6, Subsection 1...Under the Sales Tax law, a taxable person is defined as anyone who
independently carries out any business activity regardless of why they're doing it or what the result is.
Section 6, Subsection 2..."Business activity," per subsection 1, includes anything done by manufacturers, retailers, or
individuals providing services, including mining, agriculture, or licensed professionals. Using tangible or intangible assets to generate steady income counts as a business activity too.
And because the definition of "providing services" has been broadened, the law interprets it such that if a physical person provides a service—like construction, translation, or brokering—via a contractor agreement or freelance fee (which is just miscellaneous income for a non-resident of the US or a third country), it is considered that you received that service
from another taxable entity for the purpose of carrying out your own business operations.
If we're talking about services that fall under the standard B2B principle—you know, like what’s laid out in Section 17.1.—then...
Look, under the Value Added Tax law, specifically Section 75, subsection 1, point 6... you guys are legally required to calculate the tax. It’s not optional...And you have to admit, if they meet all the other requirements, they should get that pre-tax credit immediately...
If we're talking about exemptions—like services tied to real estate or cultural stuff (Articles 19 through 26)—then you're strictly required to follow the Value Added Tax law...
Section 75, subsection 2... typical. You gotta calculate the Value Added Tax right away, including the input tax... because the assumption is you've already received the service from another taxpayer.
Alright, here are three more examples of what tax advisors have been telling their clients...
Question...:
So, I’m working as a freelance consultant here in the States, just doing my thing under a standard independent contractor agreement. What's the deal with the Value Added Tax law when I'm providing services to clients overseas?
Response...:
Look, if you're an American business owner paying out a second income benefit for some consulting services, you've got to handle the Value Added Tax. You’re required to calculate and pay that tax based on the gross amount being sent to a non-resident. It’s just how it works... If you're running a taxable business and you have the right to claim input tax credits, then you go ahead and list that credit on your VAT return for the period when the consulting service was reported. Simple enough, I guess....
Question...:
So, here’s the deal. We've got a business entity here in the States, and we're looking to hire an individual—someone from outside the country, specifically Mexico—to handle some decorative interior design work. It’s going to be under a standard independent contractor agreement. Our big question is: when it comes to the Value Added Tax law, do we calculate the tax based on where our business is located...
Response...:
So, regarding the Value Added Tax law... basically, if a domestic business is paying out a non-resident for services that are taxable here in the States, they're the ones on the hook for calculating and paying it. I’m assuming you’ve got some non-resident contractor coming in to handle decorative interior design or something tied directly to real estate. Well, per Article 19 of the Value Added Tax law and Article 33 of the regulations, the place of supply—meaning where the tax actually applies—is wherever that property is physically located...Question:Got a question about some copyright work being done by a non-resident—someone outside the European Union, specifically over in Mexico—for a packaging design project. The work is actually being carried out in Mexico for a taxpayer based here in America. Do we need to calculate this as other income for a non-resident? And regarding the Value Added Tax law, do we pay that based on where the service recipient is located? Also, does it even matter where the service is physically performed... like, does the distinction between Mexico and America change anything...?
I don't even know where to start with this... just total nonsense. Honestly, it’s like nobody actually looks at the facts anymore before they start shouting. You look at the data and it tells one story, then you listen to these people and it’s something completely different. It's exhausting...So, I was looking at Section 75, Subsection 1, Point 6 of the Value Added Tax law... and honestly, it’s just more bureaucratic nonsense. Basically, if you're a registered business entity—even if you aren't technically classified as a "taxable person" under the code—you're on the hook for paying VAT if some foreign entity provides services to you. Yeah, you heard me right. If they don't have a headquarters or a residence here in the States, the bill lands squarely on your desk. Then there's Subsection 2, which makes things even more ridiculous. If a non-resident business is delivering goods or services within the US, the responsibility to pay that tax falls on the local registered entity receiving them. It doesn't matter where the provider lives; the American side pays. And for anyone confused about who counts as a "taxable person"... according to the law, it's basically anyone running an independent business, regardless of why they're doing it or how much money they actually make. Just more red tape to choke everyone...
Based on how the rules work, if an American business or individual picks up a service from someone living in Mexico, they’re on the hook to calculate the American Value Added Tax on that service... doesn't even matter where the actual work happens...On the other hand...
The IRS says there’s no sales tax to worry about here because a private individual isn't actually transferring any taxable assets to us...Oh, sure. You go ahead and be the genius then... 🤷🤷