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Posts by Nicholas Myers

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mellowmoose11 said:I would really appreciate it if someone could help me read this report—basically, interpret it.
Also, if the results aren't good, who should I contact? I haven't received any instructions. This was done at a community health center, but follow-ups regarding these findings won't happen until the end of the year; they even told me appointments wouldn't be available until 2017.
RADIOLOGY REPORT
Native MSCT thorax scan for polyarthralgia and lymphadenopathy?
In the scanned portion of the neck base, there are no significantly enlarged lymph nodes in either axilla. In the middle mediastinum, specifically in the area of the right lower paratracheal group, there are several small lymph nodes measuring about 8 mm.
One lymph node is located precarinallly and in front of the right main bronchus, measuring 14x8mm. In the anterior mediastinum, within the thymus bed, a triangular zone of fine nodular pattern is noted, which may correspond to thymic remnants. Both lung parenchyma appear normally aerated without visible inflammatory infiltrates or pleural effusion.
Forgive me if I've posted this in the wrong place, but I’m quite worried and would truly appreciate some help. Thank you in advance.

Since none of the radiologists (Gertrude) have responded, here is my take. It looks like mediastinal lymphadenopathy (one lymph node is over 1 cm or 10 mm, which meets the criteria). There is a wide range of diagnoses, both benign and malignant, that could be considered. However, given that it's just one node and its largest dimension is under 20 mm, the highest probability among all possibilities is that this is a reactive lymph node—essentially, a benign and harmless enlargement.

You need to reach out to whoever referred you for the scan.

Ashley Thomas5 said:Hello,
here are the results:
erythrocyte 4.52 (3.86-5.08)
hemoglobin 148 (119-157)
hematocrit 0.443 (0.356-0.470)
mcv 98.1 (83-97.2)
mch 32.8 (27.4-33.9)
mchc 334 (320-360)
Leuk 7.3 (3.4-10.00)
platelets 385 (158-424)
iron 35 (8-30)
uibc 26 (26-59)
tibc 61.7 (49-75)
ferritin 38 (4-200) ng/ml
crp 1.2 (up to 5)
ast 18 (8-30)
alt 16 (10-36)
ggt 27 (9-35)
By the way, I had my spleen removed 12 years ago due to thrombocytopenia.
Does this iron result indicate anything specific, or could it be related to not having a spleen causing the slight elevation? Thanks.

Ferritin is normal. Transferrin saturation—that is, the Fe/TIBC ratio—is around 50%, which still falls within the normal range. So, I'd say these results aren't cause for concern. It isn't because of the asplenia. Likely just daily fluctuations in iron concentration, diet, or something similar.

Olivia Gomez67 said:Hey, looking for some insight here. Is a prothrombin time ratio of 0.89 concerning?
prothrombin time (INR) is 1.08. Thanks.

Not at all. For anyone not on anticoagulants, that’s a perfectly normal result. If you *are* taking blood thinners, though, then we have a problem—it means the dose is too low and needs an adjustment.
Laura Hernandez25 said:Just got my results back from Fran Mihaljevica.
I'm struggling to make sense of this... am I looking at a past infection or is it still active?
I work in immunology research, so here’s what I’ve got.

EBV VCA IgG is positive at 598. Anything over 40 is considered positive; under 20 is negative.

EBNA IgG came back positive—over 600. For context, anything above 20 is considered positive, while anything under 5 is negative.

Everything else came back negative? (EBV IgM, EBV Ea IgG, CMV IgG, and CMV IgM?)

The infection has cleared.

Karen Watson13 said:My son is 12. He’s been running a low-grade fever—somewhere between 99°F and 99.5°F—for ten days now. He also has constant post-nasal drip. We had some bloodwork done; here are the results:
White blood cell count: 11.1 (Normal range: 4.4 - 11.6).
Red blood cell count at 5.3 (Reference range: 4.34 - 5.47).
Hemoglobin at 155. Reference range sits between 121 and 145. It’s high.
Hematocrit 0.44 (Range: 0.366 - 0.452)
MCV 83 (76.5 - 92.1)
MCHC 345 (304 - 346)
RDW 11.4 (11.5 - 14.3). Just a hair under the threshold.
Platelet count at 372 (Ref: 178 - 420).
Neutrophils at 32.1% (Reference range: 30–72%). Barely clearing the threshold.
Lymphocytes at 40.7 (Reference range: 19.0 - 52.0).
Monocytes at 8.1 (Normal range: 3 - 12).
Eosinophils at 18.4 (normal range up to 7).
Basophils at 0.7 (upper limit 1.0).
CRP at 0.4. Reference range is 0.1 to 2.8. Low end of the spectrum, but within bounds.
Starting Klavocin this Monday. My doctor is calling it a viral infection, though she only gave my labs a cursory glance—I was the last patient of the day, and she was already mentally checking out for the afternoon.
Is that hemoglobin level actually cause for concern, or just noise?

Once you've recovered and finished treatment, it’s wise to run the KKS again.

northernraven3 said:Hey everyone,

Should I be worried about my recent checkup? My doctor at the clinic suggested I see a hematologist, though my primary physician wants to run another round of blood work first just to be sure. To make matters more confusing, my internist claims that smokers always have elevated white blood cell counts—something I’ve never heard before, especially since I'm 43—yet my levels have been high for years now.

Here’s my blood work: (I'll only list the elevated levels)
White blood cell count: 10.9 (normal range 3.4–9.7).
Lymphocytes at 3.7 (Reference range: 1.19–3.35).
Hemoglobin at 162. The standard range tops out around 157. It’s high.
Hematocrit 0.473 (Ref range: 0.356–0.47). Just a hair over the line.
MCV 99.7 (Ref range: 83–97.2). Slightly elevated.
MCH 34.2 (Ref: 27.4 - 33.9)

Smoking does bump up white blood cell counts—that’s a fact. In a smoker's CBC, you'll typically see elevated neutrophils. It might be worth ordering a peripheral blood smear at the start of the workup just to be thorough.
Chris Kim63 said:Can someone help me make sense of these lab results?

Station type.
Segmented 58 (44-72).
Lymphocytes: 30 (Ref range: 44-74)
Monocytes: 11 (Reference range: 2-12)
Eosinophil Group 1 (0-7)

The white blood cell count looks normal. No significant changes in cell numbers or morphology. Everything seems stable.
The results look fine on paper. However, this testing was ordered specifically to rule out potential autoimmune or rheumatic issues, given the sheer number of symptoms currently being dealt with.
Can you make sense of what this field is showing? Thanks.

Clean results!

That kind of result doesn't rule out an underlying immunological or rheumatological issue. So, to answer your second question: no.

It’s like trying to build a house on quicksand. You think you have a solid foundation, then everything just shifts under your feet. [User Name] says:
Could someone weigh in on these hormone results? I had them done on day 21 of my cycle. I'm 28, dealing with PCOS, and looking to get pregnant.

For an accurate reading of sex hormones—excluding progesterone—it’s better to test on day three of your cycle rather than day twenty-one.

Kimberly Wright78 said:Anyone here capable of interpreting an OGTT result?
Fasting glucose at 6.8.
Two hours later, we're at 7.0.
I'm wondering what kind of disorder this could actually be, and which specific tests I should look into next?
Thanks!

The results point toward impaired fasting glucose. Essentially, we're looking at prediabetes, which signals an elevated risk of developing type 2 diabetes down the road. You’ll need to follow up with an HbA1c test, a full lipid panel (HDL, LDL, triglycerides), routine biochemistry, and a urinalysis to check for protein levels. It is also necessary to schedule a physical with your doctor—specifically to monitor blood pressure, BMI, and waist-to-hip ratio—while considering any family history of diabetes.

Once all the data is in, we’ll map out the best strategy for treatment and long-term monitoring. Typically, this involves shedding some weight, ramping up physical activity, and tweaking the diet—with medication added to the mix if necessary (for things like hypertension, high cholesterol, or potentially oral hypoglycemics).
Kyle Nelson2 said:I’d pose a general question: what does it mean when anti TPO is within normal limits (0-34), but anti TG is elevated (significantly above 115)?

Elevated anti-thyroglobulin levels can be linked to various conditions, ranging from autoimmune thyroid diseases and thyroid tumors to other autoimmune issues like rheumatoid arthritis, chronic urticaria, Sjögren's syndrome, SLE, or autoimmune hemolytic anemia. They also show up in a small number of healthy individuals, though the values aren't typically that high there. You might also see them in pregnant women or people with a family history of autoimmune thyroid disease.

Anti-thyroglobulin isn't a specific marker. A high reading alone isn't enough to confirm any of those diagnoses; it has to be looked at alongside other parameters. Some even argue that an elevated anti-thyroglobulin level without anti TPO shouldn't be used as sufficient grounds for an autoimmune thyroid diagnosis if suspicion exists.

More info here: http://emedicine.medscape.com/articl...erview#showall

slyfox9 said:Does anyone know what these values mean?

HLA-A 02/--
HLA-B 18/44
HLA-C NT/NT
HLA-DRB1 04/11
HLA-DQB1 NT/NT

Thanks in advance.

Best regards.

The core concept behind this testing is that certain HLA antigens appear more frequently in people with specific diseases than in the healthy population.

Essentially, the presence of certain antigens is tied to a slightly higher risk of developing a particular condition. This doesn't mean that having the antigen guarantees you'll get sick. Similarly, someone can develop the disease without having that specific antigen.

Regarding your specific results, I see you have HLA-DRB1*04, which can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.

However, it isn't quite as straightforward as it looks. Within HLA-DR4, there are actually over 30 subtypes (labeled HLA-DRB1*0401 through *0433), and only some of them are linked to rheumatoid arthritis—most notably DRB1*0401 and DRB1*0404.

It is thought that people carrying these specific subtypes face roughly four times the risk compared to the rest of the population. For instance, about 60% of rheumatoid arthritis patients (in America) carry one of these HLA-DR4 subtypes, and if you factor in all the subtypes, that percentage can climb as high as 80%.

That said, your report doesn't provide that level of granular detail because the typing wasn't performed that way.

For more on the link between HLA and specific diseases, check this out: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/arti...7156/table/T1/
Jessica Reyes42 said:Hi,
I got my blood work back yesterday and I'm a bit worried. If anyone with expertise could explain what this might mean in my case.
The blood was drawn for a routine checkup.

The results could be interpreted as normal—within broad physiological limits. White blood cell counts are only marginally above the upper limit, and since the differential count is fine, this likely just reflects a minor infection or perhaps a sore throat, as you were already told.

rapidtiger11 said:RWD 15.3 (9 to 15)
ALP - alkaline phosphatase 51 (52 to 119)
Ferritin 8.8 (10 to 120)
U - Bacteria present in significant amounts

In short, the labs show low iron stores, essentially latent iron deficiency. This isn't linked to acne or skin issues. It means iron is either being lost from the body, not being taken in enough, or a combination of both. In women, heavy menstrual cycles are the most common culprit.
The ALP level is normal.
Finding bacteria in urine without clinical signs of an infection usually points to bacteriuria, which can sometimes result from an improperly collected sample.
Bottom line: these results don't explain the skin problems.

Sarah Adams3 said:Hello. I could use some help here if possible.
I did a 5-hour OGTT with insulin.

From what I can see, the blood glucose levels are within the normal range. For the insulin, I need to specify the units (pmol/L, mIU/L, or something else?).
I also had my reproductive hormones checked—LH at 6.0 and FSH at 5.6—on day 5 of my cycle.
I read that days 2 or 3 are best, so I'm not sure if these day 5 results are reliable.
Thanks.

You heard correctly; day three is ideal. While these day five results will probably suffice, it would have been better to test on day three, especially if we are looking for subtle deviations.
Maria Kern71 said:Got my lab results back from New York City today. They ran serology for CMV, EBV, and toxoplasmosis. I tested positive for those two viruses, but negative for toxo. The testing was prompted by suspected mononucleosis.

The breakdown is as follows:

EBV VCA IgM >160 U/ml
EBV VCA IgG 93.8 U/ml
EBV EA IgG 103.0 U/ml
CMV IgM 61.2 U/ml
CMV IgG 99.6 U/ml

It looks like you have an acute EBV infection—mononucleosis, just as the doctor suspected. As for the CMV, it's unlikely to be an active infection; the result is probably just a byproduct of polyclonal B lymphocyte activation triggered by the acute EBV.
Male urethritis: What to expect? in Health ·
What kind of testing was done? Scans? Swabs?
Angela Kelly47 said:Should I be worried?

Your INR values look fine. A range of 2–3.5 applies to patients on blood thinners. For healthy individuals not taking those medications, an INR should be around 1.0.

Everything you listed is within normal limits, except for a slightly elevated fibrinogen level. It’s more of a borderline case than a significant spike—one could argue 4 g/L is the upper limit, though some labs set it at 5 g/L.

Taking birth control pills commonly nudges fibrinogen levels upward, so this finding is expected.

That said, determining if you're at an increased risk for thromboembolism depends on much more than just fibrinogen; there are many other variables.

If you're uneasy about it, you should have a conversation with your gynecologist.

Joseph Taylor3 said:Note: I had a smear done privately and they asked why. I explained the situation and mentioned the nodes. The doctors there felt a biopsy was unnecessary, suggesting specialists wouldn't recommend it if they thought it was needed. They did mention it might be best to visit infectious disease specialists at the Mayo Clinic to figure out the reason behind these "reactive" lymph nodes.

An increase in existing lymph nodes is generally an indication for a biopsy. You can consult an infectious disease specialist for a second opinion.
Mark Anderson90 said:Hi, can someone explain these results:

EBV VCA IgM - negative
EBV VCA IgG - positive - 750 U/ml
EBV EA IgG - negative - negative
EBNA IgG - positive - 132 U/ml

The EBV infection has cleared. If you're experiencing symptoms now, they aren't caused by that virus.

Maria Kern71 said:Hi, I need help interpreting these results

Aspartate aminotransferase 77 (14-32)
Alanine aminotransferase 66 (10-29)
Gamma-glutamyl transferase 75 (10-24)

Hematology
Leukocytes 12.3 (4.4-11.6)
MPV 10.7 (7.0-10.4)

CBC
Seg. neutrophils 0.96 (1.94-8.0)
Lymphocytes 8.65 (0.84-6.03)
Seg. neutrophils 7.8 rel% (34-69)
Lymphocytes 70.3 rel% (19-52)
Monocytes 4.5 (5-13)

I've listed the high and low values here; everything else looks standard. I don't see my doctor until Monday. Given the fatigue, sore throat, fever, and pain in the upper left side of my abdomen, there's a suspicion of mononucleosis.

A peripheral blood smear, CRP, LDH, and EBV serology are necessary. The suspicion regarding mono seems justified.
Joseph Morales2 said:Just to add—I saw my urologist today. He confirmed it's prostatitis.
Could this have triggered an enzyme spike?

Prostatitis likely isn't linked to elevated liver enzymes. You mentioned having celiac disease, though. It’s worth noting that high liver tests are common in people with celiac who aren't strictly following a gluten-free diet. If you're staying disciplined with the diet, then those enzyme levels probably have nothing to do with the celiac and are being caused by something else entirely.

Andrew Fisher3 said:I’d appreciate some clarification on this. Before I share the results from Betty Rogers2, I wanted to ask about this specific part—the bolded section here.
Thanks! 🙂

Reason for the search? What are the symptoms?

Joseph Taylor3 said:To put it bluntly, I’m ready to dig deeper. Given the current situation, would it be more logical to see an immunologist or a hematologist? I’m planning to bypass the standard insurance route and go private; I have zero interest in waiting months for an appointment through a referral.

If that lymph node keeps swelling, we’re looking at a needle biopsy. Beyond just a CBC, there are other tests to run—things I’ve already mentioned. Getting those results back might finally clarify which specialist actually needs to take the lead here.
Apilado, your post has been moved to the women's health PDF under the topic Breast cysts.
Jessica Davis6 said:Hi experts,
how would you interpret this peripheral blood smear:

CBC: baso 1, eo 3, seg 56, ly 35, mono 5; tr +++
Only a few neutrophils show toxic granulation.
Erythrocytes - partially macrocytic.

I was referred for further testing due to prolonged macrocytosis. This result is a week old, and there’s no expert opinion included.

Thanks.

Looking at the peripheral blood smear, we see what was already known—macrocytosis, which means increased erythrocyte volume. The rest of the smear looks clean, which is a positive sign. There aren't any specific indicators present—like target cells, hypersegmented neutrophils, immature cell forms, or erythrocyte fragments—that would point toward a specific cause for the macrocytosis.

There are various causes for macrocytosis. It is critical to determine whether it is just an increase in volume/size or if anemia is also present.

What is the actual MCV? What about the rest of the CBC? Any other tests? Symptoms? Alcohol consumption? Medications?
Harold Garcia60 said:My liver enzymes are up. ALT, AST, GGT.

The lab results you shared rule out Hepatitis B and EBV—the usual suspect behind infectious mononucleosis—as the cause for those elevated liver enzymes and the lesion itself. However, this doesn't solve the puzzle. We still don't have a definitive answer as to what actually triggered the liver damage.

I noticed someone already brought up the connection between lipid profiles and liver damage on the previous page. I agree with what was said there—fatty liver could definitely be one of the reasons your liver enzymes are elevated. You should probably get an abdominal ultrasound to see what's actually going on.

Chloe Garcia10 said:I’m currently six days into a course of Clavocin following a procedure to remove some warts. I’m also taking half a tablet of Febrivin and using Trazodone to help me sleep. Is there any chance one of these could be messing with my liver enzymes?

All three medications you're currently taking carry the risk of causing liver injury—specifically, elevated liver enzymes. However, based strictly on what you've shared here, it’s impossible to say for certain if that is the definitive cause of your lab results.
wanderingjackal18 Asks:
Generally speaking, things are looking pretty lackluster.

Based on your description, I’d say that assessment holds up.
By the way, I’m dealing with... Rheumatoid arthritis. My thyroid scans came back clean, yet they're still insisting that isn't the root of my issues. 🤔

This is critical data. I suspect it could play a major role in whatever symptoms you're dealing with, though without a full exam and the rest of your lab results, nothing is certain.

Angela Kelly47 said:Since you mentioned stopping iron because of the stool changes, do you think skipping this morning's dose would be enough if I’m doing the fecal occult blood test tomorrow morning? Also, is it actually okay to just cut off the therapy for three days like that?

Thanks.

It’s worth double-checking which specific test is being used, given that occult blood screening is typically handled through primary care labs—like a local community clinic. If they're running a Guaiac-based test, you shouldn't be taking any iron supplements three days prior to or during the testing period. You also need to stick strictly to whatever dietary restrictions they provide. Check the guidelines. Here..
Maria Fisher46 said:that fecal occult blood testing.

I neglected to emphasize earlier that you shouldn't be taking iron supplements during that specific test.
Joseph Taylor3 said:Thanks for the detailed response. My issue is that my primary care physician thinks everything is perfectly fine and refuses to refer me anywhere. I'm stuck if I can't get her assistance.

Additionally, when dealing with this kind of stuff, the main fear is always some serious condition linked to elevated lymphocytes and swollen lymph nodes. To rule those scenarios out, would it be wise to have a lymph node biopsy performed to check the status?

It’s difficult to judge whether your doctor is right or wrong based solely on what you've shared. It could truly be something trivial that doesn't require follow-up, or it might not be. If you can't find common ground with your physician, just switch doctors. In the US, that's a quick and easy process.

A lymph node biopsy isn't an especially dangerous or complex procedure. Given that the nodes are enlarged—about 18 mm, if I recall correctly—they could certainly be biopsied. However, the result will likely (as I mentioned, ultrasound isn't 100% sensitive or specific) show reactive hyperplasia. That leaves us with the question of how to interpret such a result without a meaningful clinical context. 🤷 Namely, while reactive hyperplasia doesn't point toward lymphoma, it doesn't rule out other potentially serious illnesses either. A biopsy won't answer other questions or clarify other symptoms you might be experiencing beyond the swelling itself. A clinician should be the one to indicate a biopsy after a physical exam, ensuring the results are interpreted correctly to decide on next steps.
🤣

Hard to say. There’s so much nonsense baked into primary care these days. This particular issue probably isn't even on the priority list for them. 😁
Angela Kelly47 said:What do those of you in this field think? 😢 Thanks.

The labs point toward moderate microcytic anemia, most likely iron deficiency. A good portion of your symptoms—though certainly not all of them—can be attributed to the anemia itself. If heavy menstrual cycles aren't the culprit (and I assume they aren't, given you've seen a gynecologist), then a deeper investigation is necessary to find the root cause. This would typically involve looking into the digestive tract. Additionally, beyond just a CBC and thyroid panel, it would be wise to include a routine urinalysis and testing for occult blood in the stool.

You mentioned taking a syrup, which I assume is an iron supplement. There are several reasons why your hemoglobin or iron levels haven't improved yet: perhaps it hasn't been long enough (you usually won't see a hemoglobin rise until the 4-week mark, and iron stores take even longer to normalize after the anemia is corrected), or perhaps the underlying cause remains unresolved, or there's an issue with iron absorption.

If possible, it would be worth checking ferritin levels. Once you have the full lab results, you should schedule a follow-up with an internist.
Joseph Taylor3 said:Update—on the latest blood panel, lymphocyte levels are still climbing, sitting at 3.95. My doctor thinks nothing of it. Over the last four rounds of testing, these numbers have been on a steady upward trajectory; the last two were actually above the reference range. Add in some swollen lymph nodes, and she’s still telling me everything is fine. No referrals, no follow-up tests, nothing.

To whom it may concern,

It’s getting difficult to keep up via this forum. Honestly, you need a proper, comprehensive review to figure out your next move. When you step back and look at everything you've posted here, a pattern starts to emerge: changes in your salivary glands—specifically that inhomogeneous echostructure—which might even be enlarged, along with dry mouth and a coated tongue. Then there's the seborrheic dermatitis, the fatigue that feels like a lingering virus, digestive issues, and those swollen lymph nodes in your neck. It all points toward something specific.

The differential diagnosis for these symptoms is quite broad. It could be anything at all, or it could be nothing significant. A few possibilities come to mind, but without a proper exam, I’d rather not speculate—I have no desire to add to your confusion.

Two things are likely linked here: seborrheic dermatitis and dry eyes. It’s probable that the dryness stems from an impaired tear film, triggered by the involvement of the oil glands in the eyelids.

Infectious mononucleosis—specifically the strain triggered by the Epstein-Barr Virus—doesn't typically linger this long unless you're dealing with some sort of complication.

I find it unlikely that Candida, or a systemic Candida infection, is the actual culprit behind these symptoms.

We generally try to bundle various symptoms under a single diagnosis whenever possible. But sometimes, you're looking at multiple distinct conditions hitting all at once. Without a full workup, it’s tough to tell where one ends and the other begins.

Since an internist usually provides the most comprehensive evaluation—provided they actually take the time to dig in—a thorough consultation might be the best way to figure out the next steps. It would be wise to go in with updated labs: a complete blood count, CRP, AST, ALT, GGT, bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, LDH, CK, glucose, uric acid, and potassium. You might also want to include a serum protein electrophoresis and a peripheral blood smear to give them the full picture.

Sandra Vaughn50 said:It was enough to determine the PV on your end.

Looking at these results, it seems like they came from a primary care clinic—maybe a local community health center. In those settings, it’s pretty common practice to "automatically" bundle an INR test with a PT. If I recall correctly from my time working in primary care, the lab requisition forms themselves often have a single "PT/INR" checkbox. It’s basically a standard package where both parameters are determined at once. 😉
wanderingjackal18 said:The issue is that even at 99 degrees Fahrenheit, everything hurts—my arms, my legs. I’m overwhelmed by fatigue even when I haven't done a thing. I'm constantly exhausted, sleepy, and my throat still hurts.

What does the differential blood count look like? You really ought to get a CBC, CRP, Liver function test, ALP, bilirubin, LDH, CK, and other routine biochemical tests; a serum protein electrophoresis would be advisable too. Once you have those results, take them to an infectious disease specialist, and depending on what they find, perhaps an immunologist next.

Based on what you've described, infectious mononucleosis (not necessarily caused by Epstein-Barr Virus) is a possibility, though we lack data regarding any findings in the throat, lymph nodes, liver, or spleen. Beyond that, other diagnoses within the autoimmune spectrum remain on the table.

Symptoms lasting this long aren't exactly typical for a standard case of mono. That's why I think—especially since you have objective signs like a fever—it's time to have a hospital specialist look into these issues.

Sophia Brooks50 said:Nicholas Myers, if you're a gastroenterologist, could you please answer the question above? Nobody else seems to be giving me any real answers...

Unfortunately, I don't practice gastroenterology anymore, so I'm not qualified to comment on colonoscopy findings. Those submucosal follicles might just be more pronounced lymph nodes, which are normally present in the intestinal wall. The finding doesn't strike me as pathological, nor do I believe a visual inspection during a colonoscopy can pinpoint the cause of constipation in your specific case. It might be better to post this on the colonoscopy thread. There's a gastroenterologist over there (Protected) who could give you a better answer. Or perhaps our colleague Bryan Barnes2 could weigh in.
Walter Campbell27 said:Everything looks fine to me, except for this PV INR coagulation lab result. It’s much lower than the normal range, and there’s a note saying "anticoagulation therapy recommended"? What am I looking at here?

The results look solid. An INR value between 2.0 and 3.0 is what we look for in patients already on anticoagulants. For someone not taking those medications, an INR around 1.0 is standard—which, in your case, is a perfectly normal finding.

Joseph Taylor3 said:My doctor told me yesterday to repeat the CBC to check my lymphocyte levels. Would you suggest I get tested for mononucleosis?

What was the reasoning behind the initial neck ultrasound focusing specifically on the salivary glands?

Based on these details, it seems plausible that there is an inflammatory focus—perhaps near the tonsils—triggering reactive lymph node hyperplasia. That explanation feels more likely; following the ENT's recommendation would be the logical next step.

Also, have you noticed any issues with saliva production, tearing, or dryness in your mouth or eyes?
briskraven22 said:I noticed there’s a thread specifically for male hair loss—and I can't seem to find any other relevant discussions—so I figured I'd post this here instead.

This post has been moved to the Female hair loss thread.
Joseph Taylor3 said:I’m going to be incredibly annoying and tedious by asking this one more time. Primarily, it's because my relationship with my doctor isn't great, and I know she'll just wave me off the moment I start explaining. But health is health, and I want clarity. I need to know if I should push for further testing, or if I should just take the specialists' word for it—that since there are no changes in the lymph nodes, I can finally stop worrying about it. Thanks.

Some critical data points are missing here, specifically regarding how long these nodes have actually been enlarged. The phrase "for a long time" is far too vague—are we talking three months, six months, a year, or several years? Furthermore, is there any increase in size when comparing two different ultrasound results?

A colleague suggested running serology for mononucleosis triggers. That might be worth doing, given that persistent lymph node enlargement lasting months due to mononucleosis is statistically less likely.

Ultrasound sensitivity for identifying malignant lymph nodes sits at roughly 95%, with specificity around 80%. In plain terms, no single ultrasound scan can rule out malignancy with 100% certainty.