Posts by Nicholas Myers

dustymaker642 said:We're looking at a five-month-old baby. Developmentally, she’s hitting all her milestones and growing beautifully. Aside from some standard reflux, there aren't any major concerns. I'll just list the specific results that fell outside the normal reference ranges.

If you want any kind of real interpretation, you need to post the full set of results. Percentages alone don't tell much of a story without the absolute values for context.

Income is down 10% this month. Will I be able to cover all my bills?

You can't really give an answer without knowing the revenue and the account balance, right?

Michelle Young74 said:Hi. I’ve been dealing with a sore throat for about 20 days now. I went through two boxes of Klavocin, but it didn't do a thing. My throat is red, scratchy, and pretty painful. I finally got my lab results back yesterday, and everything looks fine except for my basal granulocytes—the reference range goes down to 0.6, but mine came back at 0.10. That really spooked me. Can anyone explain what that actually means? What do those cells signify, and is there any chance this could be leukemia?
The CRP levels look fine, and both the lymphocyte and leukocyte counts are within the normal range.

Klavocin isn't exactly the first choice for a sore throat, so I’m struggling to see the clinical reasoning behind prescribing it for this specific issue. It’s highly unlikely we're looking at strep throat here. Furthermore, commenting on isolated basophil counts without looking at the rest of the CBC is just medically unsound.

cosmiclynx12 said:Just adding some more detail to my previous post to make things clearer.
I had symptoms: a 104 F fever, chills, and chest pain whenever I breathed.
The doctor called it atypical pneumonia. After a round of antibiotics, the symptoms cleared right up.
The terminology at the end of my lab results—leukocytosis, lymphopenia, and monocytosis—has left me feeling both confused and a bit uneasy.🤔
WBC (yes, white blood cells) is at 10.9. My lab's reference range is 3.4–9.7.

A leukocyte count of 10.9 fits the profile of atypical pneumonia, though you can't officially call it that until the chest X-ray comes back. Without those imaging results, any diagnosis is just guesswork.

Rebecca Roberts8 said:Tick bite:
Before the bite (had a checkup 10 days prior)—lymphocytes at 24 (range 20-46)
After one course of Azithromycin (3 weeks post-bite)—lymphocytes at 52
After three more courses of Sumamed (another 2 weeks later)—lymphocytes at 46.20

The only lingering issues are swollen lymph nodes (3 total); they aren't painful anymore, but you can still feel them.

Is this enough evidence that inflammation is subsiding, or is it still ongoing? When should I retest? Thanks 🙂

You didn't provide the full CBC. Looking at just a percentage isn't enough to make any meaningful interpretation.

Like I said earlier: my income is down 10% this month. Will I be able to cover all my bills?

You can't answer that until you know exactly what the income is versus the cost of the bills, right?

Furthermore, it’s unclear why you were taking "so many courses" of Azithromycin. For starters, Azithromycin isn't even the first-line treatment if Lyme disease is suspected. Secondly, the standard protocol is a total of six 500 mg tablets—two 500 mg tablets on day one, followed by one 500 mg tablet daily for the next four days. That's it.

Or is there something else going on here?

ironcyclist44 said:Hi there. I ended up at the Mayo Clinic the day before yesterday because of intense pain in my lower right abdomen. The doctors ran some blood and urine tests and basically told me it "wasn't their department" and that I should follow up with my primary care physician. I had severe pain yesterday, though it's subsided quite a bit today—barely noticeable now. The pain tends to flare up after eating.

It’s interesting; the lab report describes pain in the upper abdomen and on the left side, yet you’re reporting pain in the lower right. There is also mention of diarrhea, which wasn't in your initial description.

That makes it difficult to provide a definitive answer.

Abdominal pain coupled with diarrhea could point toward a gastrointestinal infection.

The urine sample shows significant erythrocytes and leukocytes. This raises questions: Are you experiencing any urinary issues? Was the sample collected properly? Is your period starting soon, or are you currently having it?

Elevated amylase isn't exclusive to pancreatitis; it can stem from inflammation in the stomach or small intestine—gastritis, gastroenteritis, or enteritis.

Regardless, if these symptoms persist, you need further diagnostic workup. Lacking health insurance can certainly make that a major hurdle.

John Ramos3 said:I'm monitoring my blood pressure, and it sits around 135/90 with a low heart rate, though it occasionally spikes before settling down.
I was hoping someone here might interpret these results to offer a second opinion alongside what I've already received. Given that I'm relatively "young," if that term even applies anymore, this has me pretty worried.

Sir, you are far too young for high blood pressure to be considered "normal." A comprehensive workup is necessary to determine if you are dealing with secondary hypertension.

In other words, we need to establish whether the elevated blood pressure is a symptom of an underlying issue—perhaps an issue with an organ or a specific system, such as kidney disease, renal vasculature, or the adrenal glands.

This distinction is vital; treatment should target the root cause rather than just prescribing pills to lower the numbers.

Further testing is required (for instance, a Holter monitor, electrolytes, urates, creatinine clearance, repeating iron levels, UIBC, TIBC, ferritin, an abdominal ultrasound, and a fundoscopic eye exam). Other tests may be needed depending on the findings.

Did any of the physicians who examined you comment on the liver lesion—specifically the elevated ALT and discrete AST? Or perhaps the elevated serum iron concentration?

Were you fasting before the blood draw? Are you taking any supplements? Alcohol?

I suggest seeking a second opinion from an internist.

electricmarlin62 said:Hi everyone. Could you please look over these two blood panels for me? One was done on Jan 22, 2015, and the other on April 22, 2015. I notice certain values are consistently low while others stay high. Is this a bad sign? For context, I have hypothyroidism but am currently untreated. I just had the blood work done for a routine checkup.
These persistent values are starting to worry me!..
Here are the links to the images!

http://s723.photobucket.com/user/luc...tml?sort=3&o=0

http://s723.photobucket.com/user/luc...tml?sort=3&o=1

I'm not entirely sure why the blood was drawn, but looking at the most recent results, I don't see what specifically should concern you. The deviations are quite minor.

ironangler22 said:Basically...what's wrong with me??

An X-ray isn't a lab test. This question was posted in the wrong section, so there won't be an answer here.

In short, you have enthesopathy—essentially degenerative inflammation where the tendon meets the bone. Specifically, it's the quadriceps tendon attachment, which likely explains your discomfort.

Do you do any specific training?

If the pain is significant, you need to see a physiatrist. They can evaluate whether further testing is required, prescribe specific exercises, and potentially recommend physical therapy.

Michelle Barnes53 said:Doctor, my issue with contaminated urine cultures has been resolved, so I wanted to let you know in case you find it useful. I provided another sample last week, but this time I didn't sit through the usual lecture on how to do it properly; instead, I explained to them exactly how I could provide an optimal sample. When I mentioned my first morning urine is usually around 4 AM, one of the cleaning ladies working there remarked, "Well, you should probably put the sample in the fridge then, so bacteria doesn't grow in the heat between then and 9 AM." Good grief, I was actually heading to school. Thanks for all the help. Best, Mirjana

If the sample is already contaminated during collection, neither the refrigerator nor any other precautions will help. The urine remains contaminated regardless.

ruggedcyclist13 said:Could someone help me interpret these gluten enteropathy screening results? I’m having them checked because there's a positive family history.
IgG 9.93 g/l
IgA 2.59 g/l
tTG-IgA 5 U/ml
AGA-IgA 2 U/ml
DPG IgA 4 U/ml
DPG IgG 20 U/ml (borderline 15-20)

Is further investigation necessary?

In my opinion, you should also undergo HLA testing (HLA DQ2/DQ8)—essentially, genetic testing for celiac disease.

analogangler61 said:I have a question. Hopefully, someone can shed some light on this.
Over the last two years, my iron levels have taken a massive dive. Back in early 2014, I was sitting right at the upper limit—around 30. Fast forward one year, and I dropped to 8.5. Another seven or eight months later, I’m down to 5. Interestingly, my hemoglobin remains steady within the normal range, and my red blood cell count looks great.
My GP tells me everything is perfectly fine as long as my CRP and hemoglobin levels look good, but I can't help feeling like something's off. It just doesn't sit right with me.

You should get UIBC, TIBC, and ferritin checked.

There is such a thing as manifest iron deficiency—a state where your hemoglobin levels look perfectly fine, but both your serum iron and ferritin (your body's actual iron stores) are running low. It’s possible that’s what you’re dealing with here. You aren't technically anemic yet, but you're standing right on the edge of it.

There is no consensus on whether to treat sideropenic states when anemia hasn't set in yet. It’s not a one-size-fits-all situation. You have to look at the individual—weighing their specific symptoms against any other underlying health issues they might be facing.

boldwalker12 said:My platelet count is running a bit high—it was elevated five years ago too. The latest results show 462 (upper limit is 424), and my K-MPV is sitting at 6.6 (normal range is 6.8-10.4). Should I be concerned? My white blood cell count is also right on the edge at 9.9 (3.4-9.7).

I'm wondering if this counts as anemia and whether I should be looking into supplements. My iron levels have always been pretty low, and now my hemoglobin is sitting at 129 (range 119-157) while my iron is at 9 (range 8-30). Also, is there any connection here to platelet counts? I read somewhere that they might be linked.

It isn't an anemia issue; your hemoglobin levels are perfectly fine. What you might be looking at is iron deficiency. In cases of latent iron deficiency, your ferritin—essentially your body's internal iron reserves—is running low, even if your actual serum iron levels still appear normal on a standard lab report.

Iron deficiency might be linked to high platelet counts, though that usually only comes to light once full-blown anemia has already set in.

I’d suggest getting a full blood panel done in a few weeks.

The platelet count shows a slight elevation. It’s nothing to lose sleep over right now, but we need to keep a close eye on the trends moving forward. It could easily be a case of transient thrombocytosis—that temporary spike you often see after the body fights off a minor infection, whether it was bacterial or viral.

It’s worth noting that transient thrombocytosis can crop up due to physical exertion, high stress levels, or even just right before a menstrual cycle begins.

Regarding iron levels—as I mentioned earlier—there is no single rule for treating sideropenia. When you have low iron but haven't hit the threshold for actual anemia, there isn't a one-size-fits-all protocol. You have to look at the patient individually. It’s about weighing their specific symptoms and any underlying health issues against the numbers. Every case is its own unique equation.

Relying solely on serum iron levels to gauge your status is pretty unreliable. If you need a clear picture, don't just stop there. You should get a full panel—iron, UIBC, TIBC, and ferritin. It’s better to look at the whole map rather than just one landmark.

Betty Gray36 said:Thanks for the reply. Isn't reactive arthritis linked to some kind of bacteria? All the tests done regarding that came back clear...
Thanks again for clarifying everything 🙂

No, reactive arthritis is indeed tied to bacterial triggers, but sometimes the actual infection remains undetected. In rheumatology, nothing is ever a hundred percent certain.

Karen Alvarez40 said:They only ran what I listed: EBV IgM and IgG, plus CMV IgM and IgG.
So, you’re suggesting more testing? Not sure why they didn't just go straight to that.

In this instance, the testing was somewhat limited, focusing only on distinguishing IgM and IgG antibodies. Generally speaking, if IgM is negative and IgG is positive, we're looking at a past infection. However, interpreting EBV results isn't always straightforward; findings can be ambiguous. In those cases, running a more comprehensive panel is the prudent move.

As for transaminases, they typically spike during the acute phase and usually normalize within six weeks in most scenarios.

Whether to pursue further EBV investigation depends entirely on the clinical picture, previous labs, and current symptoms. It would certainly be wise to check viral hepatitis markers as well, if that hasn't been done already.

Jessica Chavez4 said:For some reason, I can't figure out what hemoglobin electrophoresis actually is or where I go to get it ordered. Do I have to go to a hospital for bloodwork, or can it be done at a local clinic? My doctor didn't really explain anything—she just handed me the referrals and left. Now I'm stuck googling everything while my computer is practically dying on me.

Yes, they need to draw blood. These specific tests are handled by hospital labs, not your neighborhood family practice. You'd typically head to a major center like Mayo Clinic or Johns Hopkins; I'm not sure which local hospitals are currently running that specific panel.

Megan Ross36 said:Can someone help me make sense of these mono results?

View on imgur

I'm asking because our CBC shows only slightly elevated relative lymphocytes (not reactive ones!) and everything else looks fine, including liver enzymes (ALT; AST).

What does "elevated relative lymphocytes" actually mean? Are you saying the lymphocyte percentage in the differential is high?

The serology suggests this is most likely a past infection. Generally speaking, this specific test is less definitive than a full four-parameter panel. This test attempts to distinguish EA IgG from VCA IgG, which matters if the clinical symptoms are ambiguous. Ultimately, any interpretation relies on the patient's actual condition. If things aren't clear, there are always further diagnostic steps to confirm whether an active infection is actually present.

Karen Alvarez40 said:I have a question regarding mono as well.

My EBV IgG is positive (99.97) and my CMV IgG is (25). IgM levels are negative. What’s the takeaway here?
I was sent for testing due to elevated liver enzymes (some were three times the normal limit). Back in mid-February, I spent three days in bed thinking I just had the flu.

I've also been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism (though ultrasound and scintigraphy came back normal). Is it possible a previous bout of mononucleosis messed with my thyroid function?

Thanks!

The data required for a proper assessment of EBV status is missing. Looking at "EBV IgG" alone doesn't tell us much when you need to evaluate all four parameters: VCA IgG, VCA IgM, EA IgG, and EBNA IgG.

Laura Lopez47 said:I'm trying to make sense of these parameters: LUC, LI, and MPXI.
Also, why are Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Neutrophils, Eosinophils, and Basophils listed in two different types? Thanks.

I believe I covered this on the previous page:

LUC stands for large unstained cells—this includes atypical lymphocytes and blasts. An elevated reading might point toward the presence of blasts (immature white blood cells) or atypical/reactive lymphocytes (cells that enlarge due to antigen stimulation, such as from viral infections like EBV, CMV, or viral hepatitis).

MPXI represents the mean peroxidase index. A high value could stem from megaloblastic anemia, an infection, or certain types of leukemia. Conversely, a low value might indicate congenital or acquired peroxidase deficiencies, or specific leukemias.

LI is the lobularity index. If this is low, it suggests the presence of immature leukocyte forms, specifically blasts.

That is simply how the equipment in that specific lab operates; hence, the results look a bit different from the standard format you might expect.

Laura Lopez47 said:Hello. I just got my blood work back and wanted to run these numbers by you all for some perspective. Here is what I’m looking at: ESR: 2 (Ref: 4-24) L Neutrophils: 41% (Ref: 44-72) L Eosinophils: 7.4% (Ref: 0-7) H Eosinophils (absolute): 0.50 (Ref: 0.00-0.43) H Everything else came back normal. I'm a bit concerned about the low ESR, especially since this pattern has been consistent for nearly three years now. My levels tend to fluctuate like this—sometimes high, sometimes low—including my lymphocytes. Given that this has been my "normal" for three years, is this actually pathological? Should I be pushing for more testing? Thanks.

ambernomad73 said:Could you please help me make sense of these blood work results? Neutrophils: 34.6 (Ref: 44-72) Lymphocytes: 48.9 (Ref: 20-46) Eosinophils: 7.1 (Ref: 0-7) Lymphocytes: 4.34 (Ref: 1.19-3.35) Eosinophils: 0.63 (Ref: 0.0-0.43) Alkaline Phosphatase: 20 (Ref: 50-153)
Everything else looks solid. All other parameters are in order.

You're asking for feedback on lab results, yet you've missed the essentials: a) there's no description of symptoms or the actual reason these tests were ordered, and b) you're looking for an interpretation of the differential without providing the total WBC count. Without that context, commenting on these findings is impossible.

Michelle Morris74 said:Thanks for the reply. We just finished the bone marrow biopsy, and I've included the results below. If you have a moment, could you help me make sense of this? Is there anything more we can determine now?

While these findings don't point toward multiple myeloma, a single bone marrow biopsy isn't enough to rule it out entirely. You also have to look at this critically, especially since the marrow is hypocellular—meaning the cell count is low. For now, the full picture remains unclear.

mellowmoose11 said:Could someone please explain these urine culture results?
The culture was ordered due to frequent urination.
Result: Morganella morganii
AM AMC CTB GM CIP NOR SXT FM LVX CFM CN
0 0 3 3 3 3 3 0 3 3 0
Thanks in advance!

The urine sample grew a specific bacterium often seen in patients who have been hospitalized, had a catheter, undergone surgery, or deal with kidney stones.

The number 3 indicates which antibiotics the bacteria are sensitive to. Some of these might only be administered intravenously in a hospital setting, while others can be taken as oral tablets.

Which treatment path is chosen and which antibiotic is used depends entirely on the clinical presentation, existing health conditions, and other complicating factors.

Betty Gray36 said:Enteropathic arthritis often involves swelling in multiple joints—polyarthritis. It’s also frequently linked to intestinal diseases. In my case, though, there’s no polyarthritis and no history of bowel issues. I’ve never had gut problems, and my tests—urinalysis, Chlamydia, Ureaplasma, Mycoplasma swabs, and stool cultures—all came back clean. I can't figure out how this fits the puzzle.
I apologize for the barrage of questions, but I'm genuinely lost. Is there any chance of some kind of mechanical failure that wouldn't show up on an MRI?

First off, enteropathic arthritis doesn't strictly have to manifest as polyarthritis. That's just one variation. While it often coincides with the onset of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), sometimes it shows up before the GI issues even start. For now, let's assume this doesn't look like Type 1 enteropathic arthritis, where you have a genetic predisposition.

If we are looking at reactive arthritis, however, keep in mind that many patients don't present with prior symptomatic infections. So, having zero history of gut or urinary tract issues doesn't rule out reactive arthritis.

Finally, just because you have a genetic predisposition doesn't mean you are destined to develop the disease.

Michelle Barnes53 said:The reason for the urine culture was follow-up with a urologist after kidney surgery; if the bacteria count hits 10^5 or higher, I'm on antibiotics.
This time, there was burning, frequent urination, and even some bleeding. My GP thought it was standard procedure to run a follow-up culture ten days after finishing Klavox. Since doctors here tend to hand out antibiotics quite easily, I felt I needed a second opinion. 🙂

Frequent urination caused by diuretics is one thing; incontinence is quite another. It might be worth asking for a referral to an infectious disease specialist.

I suspect anything north of 1.9 is standard for Lupus International.

Megan Ross36 said:I'm curious about what these specific abbreviations on a CBC (complete blood count) result
actually mean regarding these low values (first time seeing them):

(K) LUC
(K) MXIV
(K) LI—this one is particularly interesting since there's no reference range listed

LUC stands for large unstained cells. This category includes atypical lymphocytes and blasts. An elevated value might point toward the presence of blasts (immature white blood cells) or atypical/reactive lymphocytes (lymphocytes that swell due to antigen stimulation, such as from viral infections like EBV, CMV, or viral hepatitis).

MXIV isn't a standard term; you likely meant MPIX—the mean peroxidase index. A high value could stem from megaloblastic anemia, an infection, or certain types of leukemia. Conversely, a low value might indicate congenital or acquired peroxidase deficiencies, or certain leukemias.

LI refers to the lobularity index. If this is low, it suggests the presence of immature leukocyte forms, specifically blasts.

Kyle Mendoza16 said:I’d really appreciate it if Nicholas Myers could clear out his inbox just a little bit. I’ve been trying to send him a message, but it won't go through. Thanks so much.

The inbox fills up incredibly fast. With my current schedule, I simply don't have the bandwidth to read or respond to private messages. Managing this volume has become a burden, and frankly, it's eating into the limited free time I have to actually participate in the forum discussions. Consequently, I've decided to stop accepting private messages for the time being.

If you have a question, please post it here. When I have a moment and if I can provide an answer, I will.

Thanks for understanding. 🙂

Jessica Chavez4 said:So the issue was the hemoglobin, thanks. It isn't critically low yet, but it's heading that way—they scared me because they said it was terribly low. I had a gynecological exam which is why the tests were done; stool samples haven't been analyzed yet. I've been referred to hematology and have an appointment scheduled. They told me to bring my records, but didn't specify if I should come fasting or if they'll be drawing blood again during that first visit.

No, the hemoglobin is definitely too low and requires treatment once the cause is identified. I'm not sure what kind of referral you received, but typically with any referral (even an A1 which covers the minimum), one specific test can be included, so they should be able to perform it there. Therefore, I think it would be wise to arrive fasting if at all possible.

Michelle Barnes53 said:Hi, I'm Mary,
I'm 64 years old. About five and a half years ago, I had surgery for kidney cancer (no metastasis), and since then, I've been quite prone to urinary tract infections.

Your inquiry doesn't make it entirely clear whether you are currently experiencing symptoms like burning during urination, discharge, or similar issues. What exactly is the indication for the urine culture?

Betty Gray36 said:Thanks for the reply. I'm not sure how useful this will be, but we also did HLA typing which showed: A2/ ND B35/ND DR16/11 DQ1/3
The current diagnosis is seronegative arthritis, though nothing concrete has been established—specifically, the exact cause of this joint swelling remains undefined. No other issues with the remaining joints..

You have HLA-B35, which is linked to a specific type of enteropathic arthritis (Type 1)—joint inflammation seen in patients with inflammatory bowel diseases (like ulcerative colitis or Crohn's disease) and other intestinal issues.

That is what the HLA typing indicates.

I agree that a diagnosis of seronegative arthropathy/arthritis would be the logical option for now.

Megan Jones27 said:Thanks for the response! I agree...
I suppose she'll need to see an internist privately then (any recommendations?), since going back to her primary doctor and begging for a referral isn't working out.

I don't have anyone specific to recommend. Try asking in the "Looking For..." thread.

Michelle Morris74 said:Please help me interpret these results. My mother has rheumatoid arthritis. Because her rheumatologist suspected multiple myeloma after hearing her full list of symptoms, they ran a serum protein electrophoresis. Her gamma is 18.3 (ref range 8.9–13.5), while albumin is 52.4 (ref range 55.8–66.1). They also found an M-protein in the gamma fraction. Consequently, she had blood work done for immunoglobulins; here are the full results:

Immunoglobulin levels
Immunoglobulin levels
Immunoglobulin levels
Rheumatoid factor 109
The serum protein immunofixation electrophoresis noted: Monoclonal IgG kappa type
Autoimmune serology ENA-screen was positive
Anti-SS-A/Ro (60 kDa) 131 (normal up to 30)
Anti-SS-A/Ro (52 kDa) 179 (normal up to 30)
Anti-SS-B/La 66 (normal up to 30)
Other antibodies are normal
ANF. Negative
CA 242 tumor marker normal......0.8

I know she needs a 24-hour urine test and a bone marrow biopsy, but in the meantime, could you provide an opinion or analysis of these findings? The issue is that she presents with all the symptoms associated with that malignancy, which is why the doctor became suspicious, and naturally, we are terrified. I am sincerely asking for any help you can provide based on these results.

Your mother has monoclonal gammopathy; that’s the extent of what these results tell us. Essentially, several different conditions could fall under this umbrella based on this finding (monoclonal IgG kappa). Primarily, we're looking at multiple myeloma and its variants, or MGUS (Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance). MGUS is a condition where there's a risk—roughly 1% annually—of progressing to multiple myeloma, while for others, it remains benign and requires no treatment.

One cannot determine which path she is on based solely on this test. However, the fact remains that MGUS—the more favorable option—is asymptomatic. You, conversely, mentioned that your mother is exhibiting "all the symptoms of multiple myeloma."

She also deals with rheumatoid arthritis (potentially involving secondary Sjögren's syndrome or overlap with systemic lupus erythematosus, given the positive anti-SS-A and SS-B antibodies; though these can also appear in RA cases), which certainly needs to be factored in. But if her symptoms truly align with multiple myeloma, then that diagnosis becomes much more probable.

Without the specific tests mentioned, determining whether this is multiple myeloma or not is impossible.

Megan Jones27 said:So what should I do next? Who can I turn to? My doctor just ignores all these results and sees no reason for further investigation despite my symptoms...

If you aren't on the same page as your current primary care physician, I'm afraid your only real option is to find a new one.

Since waiting lists for an immunologist are incredibly long—and even once you get in, they might order tests that force you back into another waiting cycle—it would be smarter to see an internist first. Get the basic blood work done to rule things out. That way, when you finally sit down with the specialist, you actually have data ready to go.

Betty Gray36 said:Unfortunately, the lab report doesn't list reference ranges, so I can't provide them here either :/
As for the symptoms, it's knee swelling. It hasn't stopped since July of last year. Currently, I'm on Salazopyrin and Decortin, and while increasing physical activity helps, fluid still tends to accumulate.

From what I can see, the rheumatoid arthritis markers (RF, anti-CCP) are negative, the antistreptolysin titer (which indicates a recent strep infection) is also negative, complement levels are normal, serum protein electrophoresis is normal, and the ENA screen is normal too.

The deviations are the borderline positive aCL IgG, the positive ANA (though no titer was specified), and the slightly elevated total IgE.

That’s the extent of the abnormalities.

A borderline aCL IgG is a low-specificity finding; it's hard to pin down a cause. It can show up during certain infections, as a reaction to specific medications, or even with systemic connective tissue diseases.

A mildly elevated total IgE could point toward an allergy, but it can also be idiopathic—meaning it might not signify anything at all.

The ANA is positive with a homogeneous pattern. Knowing the titer would be useful, but honestly, these results can sometimes appear in perfectly healthy individuals.

All told, I can't say for sure if there are signs of a systemic connective tissue disease, though it doesn't look likely to me. Of course, without a clinical exam, I can't be certain.

restlessangler said:Thank you so much, Felix.
I started taking Vitamin D two weeks ago.

Regarding phosphorus. Physically, I feel fine—my kidneys seem to be holding up well. No symptoms to report. My 24-hour urine test from late December showed everything was within range...

I had my creatinine and urea checked via blood work maybe a week before those tests. Those levels were perfectly normal; honestly, my blood work has never looked better than it did back then... In any case, I plan to retest those three specific markers. However, given there’s no immediate cause for alarm, I’d rather wait until I’ve been on this Vitamin D regimen for a while before doing so...Does anyone know when the optimal window is to check if this dosage is effective or if my levels are climbing?
(I'm taking 6 drops daily, which is quite a bit more than the standard recommendation of 4). I don't want to run the labs too early only to get unnecessarily "shocked" by seeing that my Vitamin D is still low...

Vitamin D levels are typically re-evaluated three months after starting treatment. Given how low the initial reading was, my take is that the current dose might be too low, but I won't be suggesting any specific medication adjustments here on the forum...

vividgull44 said:I need some help here.
Patient is a 59-year-old male with Type 2 diabetes. He’s experiencing vision issues due to the diabetes and was sent in for testing. Here are some results—looking for an interpretation if possible:
Sedimentation: 10/20
Leukocytes (urine): 25
Glucose (urine): 50
Ubg: 2
Bilirubin: 1
HbA1c: 11.4—quite high
MPV: 10.3—slightly elevated
Basophils: 0.7 (upper limit is 0.7)
Creatinine clearance: 1.49 (normal range is 1.60 to 2.80)

Cholesterol and glucose are both up (cholesterol 6.1, glucose 13.6)

Everything else looks fine.
Results came in today.

Blood sugar needs immediate management through medication adjustments and lifestyle changes. Given the HbA1c, his glucose levels are highly unregulated. An ophthalmology exam and a retinal fundus check should happen ASAP.

Any issues with urination?

Jessica Chavez4 said:Hi, could you please explain these results? Everything seems quite low to me. Is this dangerously low, or just concerning?

Iron: 2 L
TIBC: 99 H
UIBC: 97 H

ERC: 4.39
Hemoglobin: 76 L
Hematocrit: 0.258 L
MCV: 58.7 L
MCH: 17.3 L
MCHC: 295 L
RDW: 18.1 H
Platelets: 518 H
WBC: 10.1 H

This indicates anemia, moderate to severe (it hits "severe" once hemoglobin drops below 70 g/L). Are you losing blood somewhere—perhaps menstruation or gastrointestinal bleeding?