Something about my old lab results is really throwing me for a loop...
Ever since the summer of 2011, I’ve been dealing with these vague digestive issues. (The symptoms have fluctuated quite a bit over the years—diarrhea for a year straight, weight loss, and so on...)
On December 29, 2011, I did a stool test for Helicobacter, which came back negative.
Then, on November 7, 2013, I underwent a gastroscopy. It showed "minor ulceration" located right at the cardia. They took a biopsy of that ulceration, along with a sample from the duodenum because they suspected celiac disease.
The pathologist wrote this in the report:

Now, two things are specifically bothering me here:
1. Why isn't there any mention of celiac disease?
I'm pretty sure I was sent for the gastroscopy due to suspicions of celiac, so why didn't the pathologist note anything regarding that?
2. This last line regarding H.p...
"rare bacteria resembling H.p."
Why "resembling" H.p.? Does that mean the bacteria looked like Helicobacter but weren't actually it? Or is that just some standard medical jargon used in pathology reports?
If it actually *was* H.p., how is it possible that they found it now, when I had a negative result for H.p. two years prior (about six months after my symptoms first started)?
I realize those stool tests are roughly 90% accurate, so there's always a slim chance of a false negative. However, I went ahead and did that same stool test twice more after that (once on February 20, 2014, and again on December 18, 2014), and both times were negative. To top it off, I wasn't even prescribed any antibiotics for these bacteria following the biopsy.
So, if three different tests said there was no H.p., is it possible that the bacteria found during the biopsy were actually something else entirely?
And this part about "rare bacteria"—does "rare" mean there were very few of them present, or that they belong to a rare species of bacteria?