Lab results - looking for opinions [PLEASE READ 1ST POST]

Olivia Anderson10 here. I’ve been staring at my latest lab results all morning, and frankly, I am losing my mind. It feels like every time I think I’ve finally hit a plateau of "normalcy," my body decides to throw a massive tantrum just for the hell of it. I was looking over my Medical Report again—specifically that damn Ferritin level—and it’s just frustrating. How can everything else seem relatively stable while one specific marker keeps dragging me down? It’s exhausting. Dealing with this constant ebb and flow of symptoms makes me want to scream. One day I feel okay, and the next, I’m completely wiped out. I know I'm not alone in this cycle, but that doesn't make the frustration any less real. Has anyone else dealt with this kind of volatility? Does it ever actually settle down, or are we just destined to play this guessing game with our doctors forever? I'm tired of being a walking science experiment. kaže:
vividsailor7, thanks for the input—if only your words were actually worth their weight in gold!
I would sign off on a diagnosis like that in a heartbeat if only it meant it wasn't anything physical.
If Mr. Mozga actually turns out to be sane, I swear, there won't be a happier person on this entire planet!
When it comes to the psyche, we’re talking about one of the most powerful forces on this planet. Seriously. When your mind can actually dictate how your physical body moves and reacts? I’ve seen it firsthand. I know because I’ve lived it.
I'm checking in with my latest lab results.

I didn't see that coming—you actually caught me off guard there (in a good way, I suppose). Just let me know once those results are in. Best regards.

vividsailor7 said:The HSV 2 test came back negative, so you don't have that.
Since the HSV 1 was positive, you currently have it in an active phase during this outbreak, so please make sure to notify your gynecologist.

Just one more thing... those "units" I mentioned earlier are likely called titers. Those should be determined as well, but they aren't listed here at all. I actually called the CDC to ask about it, but I'm not sure if they misunderstood me or what, because they just told me to follow up with whoever referred me so I could get more information there...

Megan Jones27 said:Just one more thing... those "units" I was talking about are probably called titers, and they really need to be determined, yet they aren't even mentioned here. I actually called the CDC to ask, but either they didn't understand me or something else went wrong, because they just told me I should contact whoever referred me so I could get more information there.

Titers. You've proven the antibodies exist, so that's what you treat based on.

Hey everyone,
I'm 32, I don't smoke, and I'm not exactly a gym rat... standing at about 5'10" and weighing 167 lbs... just went in for my annual checkup and here is what they found:

- I'm only listing the numbers that fell outside the normal range

Cholesterol 5.6 (3.5-5)
Triglycerides 1.96 (1.7)
HDL cholesterol 0.95 (>1)
LDL cholesterol 3.70 (<3.0)

Blood pressure 140/85

Honestly, this has me pretty worried. I’m wondering how much of a warning sign these numbers are if I don't get my act together. What should be my first move to get back on track? I have to mention, I'm really sweating this because cardiovascular disease runs in my family. Oh, and one more thing... an abdominal ultrasound showed that both my kidneys look normally developed, but they have some changes in the renal collecting system due to an infection. Is that dangerous? Especially since I don't even remember ever having a kidney infection—just some issues with kidney stones about 10 years ago.

briskskipper71 said:Hey everyone,
I'm 32 years old, a non-smoker, and pretty sedentary... standing at 5'10" and weighing about 167 lbs... during my routine physical, they found the following:

- I'm only listing the values that fell outside the normal range

Cholesterol 5.6 (3.5-5)
Triglycerides 1.96 (1.7)
HDL Cholesterol 0.95 (>1)
LDL Cholesterol 3.70 (
Blood pressure 140/85

This really freaked me out. I want to know how much these numbers hint at serious issues if I don't change my lifestyle. What's the best way to get back on track? I should mention this is weighing heavily on me because cardiovascular disease runs in my family. Also... an abdominal ultrasound showed that both kidneys are normally developed, but the collecting system looks altered due to some past infection. Is that dangerous? Especially since I don't recall ever having a kidney infection—just some issues with kidney stones about 10 years ago.

Both your blood pressure and lipid levels are elevated. You absolutely have to monitor this, especially since you mentioned a family history of heart disease. Honestly, these elevations aren't massive, but they are right on the edge. You need to follow up with an internist for further evaluation. Your BMI is perfectly fine (23.7). You should look into a low-fat diet (around 1500 calories), cut back on salt, and definitely start getting some physical activity in.
What were your glucose, creatinine, and other test results? (Clearly, you didn't read the first post where it says to list all tests, whether they were normal or not.)
Best regards.

Thanks so much for the reply, Dr. Harvey. I also want to apologize because I didn't include all the numbers—basically, my company pays for those fancy, high-end screenings where they check absolutely everything under the sun, including analyzing every possible detail in the bloodwork. I guess it would be better if they dialed back the pressure a bit... but anyway, we're getting off track now... I can't really sit here and type out every single thing since everything is within the normal range; honestly, nothing even came close to the limits. GFR is 4.8, creatinine is 71.

briskskipper71 said:Thanks so much for the response, Dr. Harvey. I also want to apologize because I didn't include all the numbers—to be honest, my company pays for those fancy, high-end screenings where they check absolutely everything under the sun, including every possible blood marker. It would probably be better if they just dialed back the pressure a bit... but anyway, we're getting off track now. I can't really type out every single detail since everything falls within the normal range; nothing even came close to hitting the limits. My GUK is 4.8, and creatinine is 71.

Maybe you could just snap a photo🤷 I’ve seen plenty of people on this forum do exactly that—just upload a picture of the lab results. At the end of the day, you really need to see an internist for a proper conclusion.

RADIOLOGY REPORT
MRI of the lumbar spine
Standard sagittal and transverse MRI slices were obtained.
All slices were performed both before and after the administration of intravenous paramagnetic contrast.

In the series of sagittal and transverse MRI slices through the lumbosacral spinal canal, the vertebral bodies show normal height, shape, and structure.
The visualized thoracolumbar spinal cord shows physiological signal intensity.
At the L1/L2 level, there is an intervertebral disc protrusion reducing the anterior subarachnoid space. At the L4/L5 level, there is a wide dorsomedial and left-sided intervertebral disc extrusion that extends caudally into the left lateral recess, reaching nearly the lower third of the L5 vertebral body. Post-contrast imaging reveals ring-like opacification typical of a sequestrum, which compresses the dural sac and the left L5 nerve root at its exit, causing dorsal displacement.
At the L5/S1 level, there is a wide mediolateral left-sided intervertebral disc protrusion that obliterates the anterior subarachnoid space mediolaterally on the left, affecting and displacing the S1 nerve root at its exit, though the root does not appear edematous.

Can someone please explain this report to me? I had these scans because of severe pain in my left leg. I am 40 years old. Thanks in advance! Any advice on what my next steps should be? Surgery or not?

Maria Morales31 said:RADIOLOGY REPORT
Lumbar Spine MRI
Sagittal and transverse MRI slices presented using standard techniques.
All slices were performed both before and after the administration of intravenous paramagnetic contrast media.

Through the series of sagittal and transverse MRI slices of the lumbosacral spinal canal, the height, shape, and structure of the visualized vertebral bodies appear normal.
The visualized thoracolumbar spinal cord shows physiological signal intensity.
At the L1/L2 level, there is an intervertebral disc reduction of the anterior subarachnoid space. At the L4/L5 level, a wide dorsomedial and left-sided intervertebral disc extrusion is visible; this extends caudally into the left lateral recess, reaching nearly the lower third of the L5 vertebral body. Post-contrast imaging reveals ring-like opacification typical of a sequestrum, which compresses the dural sac and the left L5 nerve root at its exit, causing dorsal displacement.
At the L5/S1 level, there is a wide mediolateral left-sided intervertebral disc protrusion that obliterates the anterior subarachnoid space mediolaterally on the left, affecting and displacing the S1 nerve root at its exit, though the root itself does not show edema.

Could someone please explain this report to me? I had these scans done because of severe pain in my left leg—I'm 40 years old. Thanks in advance! Do you have any advice on what my next steps should be? Is surgery necessary or not?

Unfortunately, surgery seems unavoidable here.
Between the 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae, the gelatinous internal material of the disc has largely leaked out—and on top of that, a fragment has broken off (a sequestrum)—which is pressing against the nerve and causing that leg pain.
That material has to be removed; there really isn't any other way around it.

At the level below that, there is also a disc bulge that could cause issues (though to a much lesser extent), so it will be up to the neurosurgeon to decide if they want to address that disc at the same time.

wanderingcobra76 said:Unfortunately, surgery is unavoidable.
Between the L4 and L5 vertebrae, most of the gelatinous material inside the disc has leaked out, and a fragment (sequester) has broken off and is pressing on a nerve, which is causing the leg pain.
It has to come out; there isn't any other way.

There is also a bulge at the level below that could cause issues (though on a much smaller scale). It’s up to the neurosurgeon to decide if they should operate on that disc at the same time.

Thanks, everything makes sense now.
Just wondering—is it laser or standard surgery, and how long does recovery take?

Maria Morales31 said:Thanks so much—things are much clearer now.
I was just wondering, though—should it be laser surgery or a traditional procedure? And how long does the recovery usually take?

It would have to be a traditional operation because the sequestrum needs to be physically removed—but honestly, you really ought to discuss both the surgical method and the recovery timeline directly with a neurosurgeon.

Hello everyone...
I might actually get a response here faster than I did on that other thread about IBS...

My doctors are suspecting Irritable Bowel Syndrome, and honestly, most of my symptoms seem to line up pretty closely with that diagnosis. About two years ago, I went through a bout of gastroenteritis, which was quite a mess. My kidney tests came back perfectly normal, though.

I recently underwent a gastroscopy. The visual exam itself seemed totally fine, but now I’ve received the tissue biopsy results, and that is what I’m really trying to wrap my head around:

The biopsy report states: the material consists of small pieces of small intestinal mucous membrane where the villi are regular and lined with normal cylindrical epithelium, while the loose lamina propria is infiltrated with inflammatory cells, predominantly lymphocytes. The mucous glands are regular.

I am currently 20 years old (turning 21 tomorrow! 😍).

So, does this mean my small intestine is inflamed? And what exactly are those lymphocytes supposed to signify in this context?
Most importantly, I’m wondering if these findings actually fit within the profile of Irritable Bowel Syndrome?

Initially, the doctor told me the gastroscopy looked normal, suggested the tissue results would likely be fine too, and mentioned I probably wouldn't even need a colonoscopy. I'm starting to wonder if that plan is changing now that I have these results in hand.

fadedharbor98 said:Hey everyone...
Maybe I'll actually get an answer here before I get one on the IBS thread..

My doctors suspect I have Irritable Bowel Syndrome. My symptoms pretty much line up with it. About two years ago, I dealt with a bout of gastroenteritis. My kidney tests came back normal.

I went in for a gastroscopy. The exam itself looked fine, but now I’ve received the tissue biopsy results, and that’s what I’m really sweating over right now:

The biopsy report says: small pieces of small intestine mucosa with regular villi lined by normal cylindrical epithelium, while the loose lamina propria is infiltrated with inflammatory cells, predominantly lymphocytes. Mucous glands are normal.

I'm 20 years old (turning 21 tomorrow 😍).

So, does this mean my small intestine is inflamed? What do those lymphocytes even signify here?
Most importantly, does this fit within the profile of Irritable Bowel Syndrome?

The doctor told me the gastroscopy was clear, that the tissue results would likely be fine too, and that I probably wouldn't need a colonoscopy. Is the story changing now, or what?

It's just minor irritation. Are you having any issues digesting wheat?

On the native slices through the lumbosacral spine, the vertebral body heights look normal, and the posterior intercorporeal line remains intact.
At the L4-L5 level, there's a dorsal disc protrusion that’s filling up the anterior epidural space and pressing against the dural sac.
Down at the L5-S1 segment, there is a broad-based disc protrusion—it's a bit more pronounced on the right side—which also fills the anterior epidural space and reaches the ventral contours of the S1 nerve roots.
In those specific segments mentioned, you can also see some early degenerative changes in the facet joints.
If clinical symptoms suggest it's necessary to get a closer look at how that protruding disc is interacting with the spinal roots, I'd recommend further neuroradiological imaging.

I'm 30 years old, and I ended up in the ER this past Sunday because the pain was just getting unbearable. Right now, I'm managing with painkillers and trying to take it easy. This CT scan was actually done last week, and I just got the results back today.
I'd love some advice—do you think physical therapy could help, or is this something where I should be seeing a neurosurgeon about potential surgery?

Casey Rogers47 said:On the native slices through the lumbosacral spine, disc heights appear preserved with the posterior intercorporeal line maintained.
At the L4-L5 segment, there is a dorsal disc protrusion that fills the anterior epidural space and impinges on the dural sac.
At the L5-S1 segment, a broad-based disc protrusion, more pronounced on the right, also fills the anterior epidural space and reaches the ventral contours of the S1 nerve roots.
Early degenerative changes in the facet joints are visible in the described segments.
If clinically indicated or if a more detailed analysis of the relationship between the protruding discs and the spinal roots is required, further neuroradiological evaluation is recommended.

I'm 30 years old. I ended up in the ER this past Sunday because the pain was just unbearable. Right now, I'm on painkillers and have been told to rest. This CT scan was done last week, and I just got the results today.
Please, I need advice—can physical therapy actually help here, or is this something a neurosurgeon needs to handle for surgery?

wanderingcobra76 will probably give you a more detailed breakdown. But honestly? It looks to me like you definitely need a neurosurgeon's opinion.

Casey Rogers47 said:On the native slices through the lumbosacral spine, the vertebral body heights appear normal, and the posterior intercorporeal line is preserved.
At the L4-L5 segment, there is a dorsal disc protrusion that fills the anterior epidural space and impinges on the dural sac.
At the L5-S1 segment, there is a broad-based disc protrusion—more pronounced on the right—which also fills the anterior epidural space and reaches the ventral contours of the S1 nerve roots.
Early degenerative changes in the facet joints are also visible in the described segments.
If there is clinical indication or a need for a more detailed analysis regarding the relationship between the protruding disc and the spinal roots, further neuroradiological evaluation is recommended.

I'm 30 years old, and I ended up in the ER this past Sunday due to intense pain; currently, I'm taking painkillers and have been told to rest. This CT scan was performed last week, and the results just came in today.
I would appreciate some advice—can physical therapy help, or is this something that requires a neurosurgeon and surgery?

Based on the CT findings, there are disc bulges at two levels that could certainly be causing your discomfort.
However, the standard recommendation for these types of findings is to start with rest, followed by physical therapy, and eventually transitioning to home exercises.
Surgery should typically only be considered if there are neurological deficits or if the pain becomes truly unbearable.
The tricky part is that people often jump into surgery, only to find they aren't any better afterward—sometimes scar tissue forms at the surgical site and ends up compressing the nerve all over again.

Since you are still young, I would suggest trying to manage this through rest and consistent exercise first.
It wouldn't hurt to seek a second opinion from a neurosurgeon—they can perform a physical exam to get a much fuller picture of what's happening—but based strictly on the CT, it’s usually better to hold off on surgery unless it becomes absolutely necessary.

Personally, when I was 30, I dealt with very similar issues and nearly identical imaging results. I went through physical therapy, and I feel completely fine as long as I stay "consistent" with my exercises (really, anything active helps).
Whenever I get lazy and stop moving, those pains tend to resurface.😁

Hi everyone.. I'm looking for some insight on these results

I'm 50 years old and have dealt with spine issues since I was a kid. Over the last 3 or 4 years, my legs have been giving out on me. It happens totally out of nowhere—no warning at all—I just suddenly collapse because my legs stop working.
It stays like this for quite a while, even after therapy doesn't seem to help much.

I just had an MRI done, and here is the report and the findings:

Lumbar spine MRI shows maintained vertebral body height with a preserved dorsal intercorporeal line.
Hyperlordosis of the lumbar spine and left-convex scoliosis of the lumbar section are visible.
There is slight dorsal positioning of the L3 vertebral body relative to the L4 vertebral body.
Pronounced spondylophytic changes are present along the vertebral bodies, specifically ventrolateral spondylophytes.
A deep Schmorl's hernia is noted in the upper endplate of the L3 vertebral body.
At the L4-L5 segment, there is a slight dorsolateral left protrusion of the intervertebral disc.
Minimal bulging of the intervertebral discs is seen at the L2-L3 and L3-L4 segments.

Please let me know what you think. Thanks in advance.

William Smith30 said:Hi everyone... I’m looking for some insight on these test results.

I'm 50 years old, and I've dealt with spinal issues since I was a kid. Over the last three or four years, though, my legs have just been giving out on me. It happens totally out of nowhere—no warning signs at all. I'll just suddenly collapse because my legs simply stop working.
For quite a while now, I haven't even been following any physical therapy.

I just had an MRI, and here are the findings and the report:

Lumbar spine MRI shows maintained vertebral body height with a preserved dorsal intercorporeal line.
Hyperlordosis of the lumbar spine and left-convex scoliosis of the lumbar section are visible.
There is slight dorsal positioning of the L3 vertebral body relative to the L4 vertebral body.
Significant spondylophytic changes are present along the vertebral bodies, specifically ventrolateral spondylophytes.
A deep Schmorl's hernia is noted in the superior endplate of the L3 vertebral body.
At the L4-L5 segment, there is a slight dorsolateral left protrusion of the intervertebral disc.
Minimal bulging of the intervertebral discs is visible at the L2-L3 and L3-L4 segments.

I would really appreciate your thoughts on this. Thank you in advance.

Have you done an emng?

William Smith30 said:Hi there... I was hoping to get an opinion on some test results

I’m 50 years old, and I've dealt with spinal issues since I was a kid. Over the last three or four years, though, my legs have just been giving out on me. It happens so suddenly—no warning signs at all—I just collapse because my legs simply stop working.
For quite some time now, I haven't even been following my treatment plans.

...

Everything described here certainly aligns with degenerative changes due to aging—but does it explain what you're experiencing? Not really.
In other words, while these findings might cause occasional pain in your lower spine, there isn't anything mentioned in this report that would account for your legs suddenly failing you like that.

You really ought to undergo further neurological testing—specifically an emng, as vividsailor7 already suggested.

vividsailor7 said:Have you had an EMNG done?

Yeah, I have.

Here are the results:

Right M. extensor digitorum brevis: barely intermediate innervation pattern with repetitive potentials at 8mV amplitude.

Left M. flexor hallucis brevis: barely intermedial innervation pattern with clear separation of high potentials.

Right M. tibialis anterior: barely intermediate innervation pattern consisting of low-voltage action potentials up to 2mV amplitude.

Right M. flexor hallucis brevis: contraction-proportional pattern consisting of low-voltage action potentials.

Left M. extensor digitorum brevis: nearly intermediate innervation pattern with clear separation of high potentials.

Both right and left M. quadriceps femoris: normal.

CONCLUSION:

Moderate to significant chronic neural lesions were recorded in the L5 radicular distribution on the right, moderate on the right L4 and left S1, and mild on the right. No signs of acute denervation.
An MRI of the lumbar spine is indicated.