Lab results - looking for opinions [PLEASE READ 1ST POST]

restlesscanyon48 said:Dear Nicholas Myers,

Of course I'm not going to get upset because you jumped in—if anything, thank you for sharing your thoughts so quickly.

These tests were part of a routine checkup for pregnancy, and as for those symptoms (like fever or pain during urination), thankfully, I haven't dealt with any of that... except maybe needing to pee a bit more often, but I just chalked that up to being pregnant.
I haven't had my CBC or CRP checked yet, but I’m calling my OB-GYN tomorrow, and hopefully, they’ll send me for some follow-up testing.
I really appreciate you; I have to admit, you’ve calmed me down a bit. I'm not usually one to panic, but since there's a baby involved now, I've been feeling a little anxious.🙂

So, on top of what Nicholas Myers already mentioned, you should probably get a CBC, CRP, glucose, urea, creatinine, and a urinalysis done.
Everything else was already covered by him.
P. S. And naturally, I won't hold it against you for responding.

I just got my blood work back and everything looks fine, except for my erythrocyte count, which is slightly elevated.
The reference range is 3.86-5.08, but I'm sitting at 5.20.
Does this actually mean anything clinically?
Thanks in advance for any insight.🙂

redpilot37 said:I had my blood work done and everything looks fine, except my erythrocyte count is slightly elevated.
The range is 3.86-5.08, but mine came back at 5.20.
Does this have any diagnostic significance?
Thanks in advance for the help. 🙂

If that’s the only outlier in your results, there isn't much clinical significance to worry about. What prompted the labs in the first place—any specific symptoms, a routine checkup, or just a general physical?

Maria Fisher46 said:If it's just that one specific part of the results that's off, then there isn't really any clinical significance. What was the reason for the tests? Some symptoms, a follow-up, or just a routine physical exam?

Yeah, just that one result was out of range.
Ever since I can remember, my erythrocyte counts have mostly been high; I actually just checked my old labs.
The testing was done as part of a routine checkup.

Are the other parameters—like MCV, MCH, MCHC, hemoglobin, and so on—all within the normal range? If they are, then the matter is settled. 🙂

Maria Fisher46 said:Are the rest of the levels—you know, MCV, MCH, MCHC, hemoglobin—all looking normal? If they are, then you're probably fine. 🙂

Yeah, yeah... everything's at 5.
Thanks for the quick reply.🙂

I need some thoughts on my labs, which I'll paste below. I'm 31. I just did a follow-up blood draw after finishing some iron therapy. I've been anemic since my first period because my cycles are super heavy, so I basically end up on iron supplements every six months or so. Also, my bilirubin is always high—my doctor says it’s probably Gilbert (though I haven't officially had it confirmed), but it stays elevated, sometimes hitting 60. On top of that, I take Duphaston for endometriosis (which is basically progesterone). No other meds.

The reason I'm asking is that my doctor told me everything looks fine except for elevated amylase in my urine. But I can't find it anywhere on my report—how is amylase labeled?

Here are the results:

Hematology
K - erythrocyte 4.47 (3.86-5.08)
K - Hgb 140 (119-157)
K - Hct 0.416 (0.356-0.470)
K - MCV 93.0 (83.0-97.2)
K - MCH 31.3 (27.4-33.9)
K - MCHC 336 (320-345)
K - Platelets 225 (158-424)
K - leukocyte high ref interval 0 7.7 (3.4-9.7)
K - Eosinophil granulocytes (rel.) 3 (0-7)
K - Basophil granulocytes (rel.) 1 (0-1)
K - Unsegmented neutrophil granulocytes (rel.) / (0-2)
K - Neutrophil granulocytes (rel.) 62 (44-72)
K - Lymphocytes (rel.) 26 (20-46)
K - Monocytes (rel.) 9 (2-12)
K - SE 5 (4-24)

Biochemistry
S - Total bilirubin 41.0 (3-20)
S - creatinine 60 (63-107)
S - ALT 15 (10-36)
S - ALP 63 (54-119)
U - AMS 531 ( S - AST 19 (8-30)
S - GGT 23 (9-35)
S - Potassium 4.1 (3.9-5.1)
S - Sodium 143 (137-146)
S - Iron 18.0 (8-30)
S - UIBC 55.0 (26-59)
S - TIBC 73.0 (49-75)

Urine
U - Appearance-cloudy Color-yellow weight 1.030 leukocyte 0 nitrite 0 PH 5.0 Erc
U - Glucose neg. (norm)
U - bilirubin neg. (0/neg.)
U - Ketones neg. (0/neg.)
U - erythrocyte/hemoglobin neg. (0/neg.)
U - Proteins neg. (0/neg.)
U - Urobilinogen norm. (norm.)
U - Nitrites neg. (0/neg.)
U - Leukocyte esterase neg. (0/neg.)
U - Appearance clear (clear)
U - Color light yellow (light yellow)
U - pH 5 (5-9)

Urine - sediment in field of view
U - leukocytes 1-3 (0-2)
U - erythrocytes / (0-2)
U - Squamous epithelial cells 7-9 (0-1)
U - small epithelial cells / (0)
U - Hyaline casts / (0-1)
U - Non-hyaline casts / (0-1)
U - Bacteria / (0/neg.)
U - Fungi / (0/neg.)
U - mucous mass (0/neg.)
U - Crystals 7 (0/neg.)
U - Salts / (0/neg.)
-----------------------------------

Is amylase this "U - AMS 531 (
I also noticed my creatinine is slightly low, and there are increased squamous epithelial cells in my urine.

Can someone help me make sense of these results?


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Dennis Barnes2 said:Can someone explain these results?
http://img267.imageshack.us/img267/7248/nalaz.th.

Hello,

The initial post includes a note that is vital if we want to interpret these results correctly.

Specifically, why was toxoplasmosis serology ordered? (Is this a pregnant patient? If so, what week? A newborn? Someone with swollen lymph nodes? Any other symptoms?)

Based on this report, which shows high IgG antibody avidity, it points toward a toxoplasmosis infection that occurred in the past. Pinpointing the exact timing is difficult, but all signs suggest the infection happened more than 3-5 months ago. That said, more reliable data regarding the onset of infection can only be obtained by testing at least two separate samples at the same lab using the same methodology.

Timing of onset, clinical symptoms, age, pregnancy status, etc.—these are all critical factors in deciding whether treatment is necessary, how long it should last, and, in the case of pregnancy, what the risks are to the fetus.

Please provide more details so a more precise answer might be possible.

Best regards. 🙂

We aren't talking about a woman here; this is her first pregnancy, currently in the 7th or 8th week. She’s 22 years old and hasn't experienced any issues or symptoms until now.

Forgive me, I’m not entirely sure I followed: are we talking about a newborn's lab results? How old is this baby, and are they showing any symptoms? Specifically, why was toxoplasmosis serology ordered for them? Also, what exactly is meant by "22 years old"?

Olivia Anderson10 said:Brain MRI results: Standard three-plane imaging techniques show normal organization of gyri and sulci, with a healthy relationship between gray and white matter. No signs of ischemic lesions or hemorrhage were found in the brain parenchyma. There are no focal expansive processes. FLAIR sequences show no evidence of demyelinating lesions. The ventricular system is appropriately positioned and sized. The optic nerve chiasm, cavernous sinuses, pontocerebellar angles, and craniocervical junction appear morphologically normal. Within the pituitary gland, there is a discrete elevated signal on T1 and T2 sequences, measuring up to 3 mm, which is primarily suspicious for a pituitary adenoma. Endocrine evaluation and a dedicated pituitary MRI are recommended.
Here is the report, vividsailor7. I need your take on this pituitary adenoma. Is it a tumor, and could it be causing my issues? As a reminder, my symptoms involve abnormal, uncontrolled jerking of my body and limbs out of nowhere. Or is this just an incidental finding from the scan, and what does it actually mean for my health?

Hello,

I missed your post. While we wait for vividsailor7—whom you addressed—to weigh in, I’ll offer my own thoughts on these findings (I have reviewed some of your previous inquiries).

Given the symptoms you described in your earlier posts, this MRI finding—which points toward a microadenoma since it's under 10 mm—doesn't strike me as a likely culprit for your symptoms.

That said, one should certainly wait for the follow-up results, both endocrine and radiological, before reaching a final conclusion.

In medical literature, pituitary adenomas are occasionally cited as potential triggers for epileptiform seizures, though this usually involves much larger tumors that press against the temporal lobe. Additionally, larger tumors can "crush" healthy pituitary tissue, leading to hormone deficiencies—including ACTH. This could theoretically cause fluctuations or drops in blood glucose, which might trigger a seizure, but that is typically observed in children rather than adults.

There is another possibility where an adenoma might link to certain types of epileptiform seizures, though this is more speculative and theoretical. In some types of pituitary adenomas, there is an overproduction of a specific hormone called ACTH, which regulates the adrenal glands. This hormone drives cortisol production; if cortisol levels spike, it could theoretically provoke seizures by acting on specific receptors in the brain. One study noted seizures in patients with elevated serum ACTH and high 24-hour urinary cortisol; once those levels were normalized through treatment, the seizures ceased.

However, these are largely speculations and rare individual cases. Generally speaking, I suspect this finding is likely an incidental discovery made while investigating the involuntary movements.

That's all from me for now.

Best regards. 🙂

Dennis Barnes2 said:We aren't talking about a woman here—first pregnancy, currently 7-8 weeks along, 22 years old, no issues reported until now.

You’ve updated your initial response, which makes things much clearer.

Based on the facts, this finding (high IgG avidity) during this specific window (7-8 weeks gestation) could suggest the infection occurred prior to conception. If that's the case, it's good news; it would mean the risk to the fetus is minimal (there is essentially only one such case documented in medical literature).

However, interpreting this result requires extreme caution, so I want to be very clear about my limitations here. The exact week of pregnancy is the deciding factor; once you pass the second month, a result like this loses its reliability, and pinpointing the exact duration of pregnancy isn't always possible. As I mentioned before, more testing is required—specifically, at least two separate samples taken 2-3 weeks apart.

More tests will likely be necessary to reach a definitive conclusion.

Best regards and all the best. 🙂

Hoping someone might actually weigh in on my results above, thanks 😁

copperraven53 said:(...)

Is this amylase reading "U - AMS 531 (
I also noticed my creatinine is slightly low, and there's an increased amount of squamous epithelial cells in my urine.

Hello,

A slightly low creatinine level, especially one as subtle as yours, likely carries no clinical significance. Similarly, the presence of epithelial cells in the urine isn't usually a cause for concern.

Yes, that notation refers to your urinary amylase level; it is somewhat elevated, though not by much. Are you experiencing any symptoms, such as abdominal pain? I ask because elevated urinary amylase can occasionally be linked to gallstones, biliary sludge, or certain digestive inflammations.

Was serum amylase tested as well? It seems unusual for a doctor to order only the urinary test without checking the blood levels.

Given your suspicion regarding Gilbert syndrome, was conjugated (direct) bilirubin ever checked (not necessarily this time, but perhaps previously)?

Best regards. 🙂

Maria Fisher46 said:Hi there,

A slightly low creatinine level, especially something as minor as yours, probably doesn't mean anything at all. Also, seeing epithelial cells in urine isn't really a big deal clinically.

Yeah, that label refers to the amylase value in your urine, and while it's a bit elevated, it’s nothing crazy. Are you dealing with any abdominal pain? I'm asking because sometimes high urinary amylase pops up with things like gallstones or sand in the gallbladder or bile ducts, or even just some digestive inflammation.

Did they check your serum amylase too? It seems kind of weird that the doctor only ordered the urine test instead of checking the blood.

Since you mentioned suspecting Gilbert syndrome, did they ever test your conjugated (direct) bilirubin (not necessarily this time, but maybe before)?

Best, 🙂

Thanks a ton for the reply. 🙂

Yeah, I know I had my direct bilirubin checked ages ago, but it was way back and I can't remember the results. I'll try to dig up the old report if I can find it. Honestly, I have no clue why the doctor wanted amylase in the first place; what I typed above is everything on the report, I just transcribed it all. As for pain, I described my symptoms here in detail, though I don't really get stomach pains. If I track down that old lab result, I'll let you know the bilirubin number.

Maria Fisher46 said:Now that the initial response has been corrected, things look much clearer.

By all accounts, this finding (high IgG avidity) during this stage (7-8 weeks gestation) could suggest the infection occurred prior to pregnancy. If that's the case, it’s actually good news, as it would mean the risk to the fetus is minimal (there's only one such case documented in the literature so far).

That said, interpreting this result requires extreme caution, so I want to be careful about making definitive claims here. The exact week of pregnancy at the time of testing is crucial; once you pass the second month, these results become less reliable, and pinpointing the exact duration of pregnancy isn't always possible. As I mentioned before, more testing is necessary—specifically, taking at least two samples spaced 2-3 weeks apart.

It will likely take additional tests to reach a certain conclusion.

Best regards and wishing you all the best. 🙂

Thanks so much for the reply.

Maria Fisher46 said:Dear ma'am,

Your post caught my eye. Since vividsailor7, who you actually directed the question to, hasn't replied yet, I figured I’d jump in and offer my own take on these results (I've gone through some of your previous inquiries as well).

Based on everything you’ve mentioned regarding your symptoms in your previous posts, this MRI report—which suggests a microadenoma since it's under 10 mm—doesn't strike me as a likely cause for what you're going through.

I guess it would be best to just wait for the upcoming results—both the endocrine labs and the radiology reports—before anyone tries to make a final call on this.

In medical literature, pituitary adenomas are occasionally cited as a potential trigger for epileptiform seizures, though this usually involves much larger adenomas that expand toward the temporal lobe of the brain. There is also the possibility that significant tumors can essentially "crush" healthy pituitary tissue, leading to a deficiency in its hormones—including ACTH, for instance. This could potentially cause fluctuations in blood glucose levels or even drops in sugar, which might then trigger a seizure, but I guess that kind of thing is mostly documented in children rather than adults.

There is another possibility where a pituitary adenoma could be linked to some form of epileptiform seizures, though I suppose those are more theoretical possibilities and speculations. The idea is that certain types of pituitary adenomas cause an overproduction of a specific hormone called ACTH—that ACTH again! This hormone is crucial for how the adrenal glands function. Basically, ACTH triggers the release of cortisol, and if cortisol levels get too high, it could theoretically provoke seizures because cortisol can act on certain receptors in the brain, potentially triggering an episode. One study actually noted the presence of seizures in patients who had elevated serum ACTH and high cortisol levels in their 24-hour urine tests; once they received treatment and those levels normalized, the seizures stopped.

Honestly, I think this is mostly just speculation based on a few isolated, rare instances. In my view, this finding was likely just an incidental discovery made during the procedure because of some uncontrolled movements.

That’s about all I have to say on the matter.

Hello there. 🙂

I honestly want to thank you for your comment and all the effort you put in—I know it probably took quite a bit of work to sift through and address every single one of my questions.
You all have been incredibly helpful in helping me wrap my head around these brain MRI results. If it turns out that this adenoma isn't actually tied to the initial issues that sent me down this rabbit hole of testing in the first place—though I suppose you all think that’s unlikely—which direction should I be looking for further diagnostics? Also, what's the actual plan for this adenoma? Is surgery something that might eventually become necessary, or is it the kind of thing where you just leave it alone if it stays "quiet"? What are the long-term health outlooks here? I assume there will be ongoing monitoring, but what I’m really struggling with—mostly from a psychological standpoint since I'm already feeling pretty shaken up—is whether I can just go on living my life as if this adenoma was never even found. Can I accept that it's there but won't cause me any harm, or am I essentially carrying around a timed bomb in my head that could flip from benign to malignant at any moment?
Thanks again for the comment, and to everyone else who wants to chime in with their thoughts as well.

Olivia Anderson10 said:brain MRI results: based on the imaging performed using standard MRI techniques in three planes, the organization of the gyri and sulci and the relationship between gray and white matter appears normal. There are no signs of ischemic lesions or hemorrhage within the brain parenchyma. No focal expansive processes were found. On FLAIR sequences, there are no signs of demyelinating lesions. The ventricular system is appropriately positioned and sized. The optic nerve chiasm, cavernous sinuses, pontocerebellar angles, and craniocervical junction are morphologically normal. Within the pituitary gland, a discrete elevated signal is visible on T1 and T2 imaging, measuring up to 3 mm, primarily suspicious for a pituitary adenoma. Endocrine evaluation is recommended, along with a dedicated pituitary MRI.
Here’s the report, vividsailor7. That’s the finding. I need your take on this pituitary adenoma. Is it actually a tumor, and could it be causing my issues? Just to recap, my problems are these abnormal, uncontrolled jerks of my body and limbs out of nowhere. Or was this adenoma just an incidental find during the scan, and what does it even mean for my health?

Hey, read through your post. Honestly, I think the adenoma is just an incidental finding. Adenomas can sometimes be handled with surgery or certain meds—you definitely need to see an endocrinologist to figure that out. But don't freak out over the adenoma; they're benign tumors and usually have a great prognosis. It's extremely rare for them to turn malignant. Does anyone in your family—mom, dad, grandparents, whoever—deal with similar involuntary movements? How old are you? Have you had an EEG done yet? Are you on any medications? Sorry if you already mentioned this stuff somewhere else, I just didn't see it in the 🙂