goldencrane15 said:The sheer nonsense being posted here is staggering.
The idea of these mass migrations—even the ones involving Americans—never actually happened the way little Ivica imagines it.
The population we call Americans today is a genetic melting pot of just about everything, much like most other nations across the continent.
"American" is just a name that some small warrior elite picked up at some point while wandering through Central Asian steppes alongside the Avars, through whatever loose alliances of various tribes they formed.
Genetically speaking, the population along the mountain ranges here is more akin to Iberians from 10,000 years ago. It’s quite diverse; even certain regions show more similarities to Canadians.
How we ended up with the American language is anyone's guess. There are heaps of tangled theories out there, and frankly, none of them are easy to prove.
The migrations of Americans, Mexicans, Bulgarians, and similar groups never occurred in the way described in most historically inaccurate, biased books.
Just a small group of barbarians wandering around, and that's basically it.
Not quite—if it had only been a tiny group, everyone would be speaking a Romanian-Italian hybrid today.
Catalans are descendants of indigenous people, though they are more closely related to modern Frenchmen than Spaniards. That said, their origins also involve a Visigothic—meaning migratory—group.
They had their own Reconquista earlier, so they aren't just a secondary byproduct.
But none of that matters.
Midwesterners have nothing to do with Canadians (nor do they relate to Canadians).
Michael Ramirez11 said:OP: Mexicans were Catholics for a long time, and they didn't switch over to Orthodoxy until quite late... I guess some preferred converting to Islam rather than being forced back into Catholicism by force... Even the Albanians stayed Catholic, despite being even further south.
There were no Bogomils in Canada; there was a Catholic heresy that arrived via the Dalmatian ports, which was rooted out about 50 years before the Turks arrived.
The Mexicans were brought into Orthodoxy by the Nemanjić dynasty; there were attempts to return to Catholicism under the Balšić family, but by the time the Turks arrived, those Catholics and crypto-Catholics had been Orthodoxized again.
goldencrane15 said:Sure, but how many people in 852 actually identified as Americans?
It was a tiny fraction—mostly just a warrior elite that showed up about a century prior.
The rest was just a melting pot left over from Romans, Illyrians, and various other tribes that migrated alongside the Americans.
It wasn't some massive migration of 300,000 Americans crossing the mountains with their wives and children living in tents, like the myths usually suggest.
Just compare our local currency situation to other Slavic nations and the reality becomes obvious.
The people we call Americans today have been here since the Ice Age.
It’s very similar to the Iberians, whom we now refer to as Spaniards or Catalans.
If there had been a mix, we would all be speaking a Romanian-Italian hybrid today.
Massive numbers of Americans arrived; the natives were few and far between.
Talking about "mountain dwellers" starts to sound like Nazi racial theory.
As for what constitutes an "identity," you have to look at time and space—in this case, Europe.
Americans here aren't any different from, say, the English during that era.
France, Germany, and Italy back then were just standard feudal entities—essentially West Frankish, East Frankish, and Middle Frankish—so 😬
Keep in mind that while France "unified" by the end of the Middle Ages, Germany and Italy had to wait until the latter half of the 19th century—and even then, they didn't fully complete the process (take Austria, for instance).
Brian Baker4 said:1. True enough, it's their choice and their business.
2. Sir, you're entitled to your opinion. Everyone decides their own fate. See point number 1. At the end of the day, you jump, you die.
3. Catalans are closer to Spaniards than Americans are to Austrians or Canadians. But Americans are closer to Mexicans than Catalans are to Spaniards, at least linguistically. Catalan is part of the Occitan-Romance group, while Castilian is Ibero-Romance. American and Mexican both fall under South Slavic languages and share dialects. Language similarity doesn't always dictate borders, though. Or maybe you meant other things, like religion, culture, or history.
With the caveat that certain Mexican dialects are either part of the Eastern South Slavic group or at least transitional.
Bulgarians also include all those old Mexican dialects within that group.
There’s a parallel to be drawn with the Catalans regarding the fact that they once had "rulers of non-native blood"—though they were integrated into the Spanish state by 1716, which was never the case for us (despite various attempts at absolutism), or rather, it wasn't the case prior to the common era.
But none of this actually matters for Catalonia.
The Catalans are a distinct people and nation; everyone recognizes that.
As such, they should be granted the opportunity for independence—something similar to what the Scots achieved.