In my experience, they just pulled that package on me once I hit my 27th birthday and started charging me full price for everything. The only thing I managed to hang onto was my student American Express until the card actually expired.
Can I use Login.gov (via the IRS portal) to split my standard deduction between two employers (50/50), or do I actually have to visit an IRS office in person? I can't find a specific setting for this—unless I'm supposed to just type it into the "Notes" section.🤔
From what I can see on the Federal Reserve website, you get to decide whether you want a charge or a revolving card. Just tell the bank you want the charge option.
JPMorgan Chase, specifically through their American Express program, offers both charge and revolving Mastercard options (alongside Visa). As a customer, you just pick which type of card you want when you're filling out the application form.
The big upside here is that if you send money via card, the bank doesn't hit you with those annoying ATM withdrawal fees. Since it’s processed as an online purchase, it stays fee-free. It would be awesome if they added Diners Club and American Express to the mix too, because using those is way more cost-effective than just pulling cash out of an ATM. 😁
Did you factor in that one-time cash advance fee (3% + $6.75) and that monthly interest charge (9.40% APR)? I doubt the cash discount is big enough to actually make this worth it for you.
placidgull21 said:So, ten years have passed (the judgment was back in February 2006), then the law firm filed for a writ of execution in August 2016 (with the ruling coming in October), but in all that time, the lawyers didn't actually take any meaningful action.
The date the sentence becomes final is what matters. That's when the ten-year statute of limitations clock actually starts ticking.
John Clark6 said:They absolutely can—provided the Contract specifically transfers all rights and obligations to a new user. For instance, if someone was previously responsible for water usage and trash collection fees while leasing a property, those duties can be shifted. I suppose the key thing here is ensuring the new tenant is officially registered as the responsible party. At the end of the day, it really comes down to whose name was actually printed on the billing statements... it’s pretty much obvious who is meant to be paying!
And honestly, the Public Utility Law doesn't even apply to this situation... that's really just relevant when you're dealing with municipal service fees or water management levies.
Actually, it does. Section 20, subsection 1 lists all the covered services, and subsection 5 states the owner is responsible for paying them.
Let me break this down. We're talking about a married couple. The wife owns the condo outright (the building isn't officially recorded in the county deed office yet, so there’s no formal title, just a purchase agreement naming her as the sole buyer). On the tenant agreement signed by the residents, her husband's name was listed, so I'm guessing the resident rep sent that over to Berkshire Hathaway, and they logged him as the owner and the guy responsible for the bills. Now they're hitting him with charges dating back from 2001 to 2009, even though he hasn't lived at that address since June 2004.
Back in 2012, they updated the billing info themselves, so the accounts have been in the wife's name ever since.
Does anyone know if the local sanitation department or the water company can actually go after someone living in an apartment who isn't the owner? I’m pretty sure the Public Utility Law clearly states that the property owner is the one responsible for these bills, but in the real world, they just sent a garnishment notice and froze the account of someone who doesn't even own the place. This isn't some subletting situation, and there isn't even a formal Contract between this person and the landlord.
The utility companies were notified in writing via certified mail, but they aren't backing down from trying to collect from this person.
quietrider3 said:So, what I'm hearing is if I take out $333 right now and clear it before the end of the year, I won't get hit with any interest? Look, excuse my ignorance here—I’m definitely not an expert in the murky waters of banking... But if I pull $1,000, am I basically looking at owing $1,100 by December? Just trying to wrap my head around it.
Of course there is—that's how they stay in business. Interest is quoted as an annual rate, but they charge you for every single day you're over the limit. Whether you're over by one day or a whole year, they're gonna hit you with interest. Obviously, if you're only over for a couple of days, the charge will just be a few bucks.
Forcing someone to pay back money works like this: once you land a job, the IRS can basically freeze your accounts and just snatch the payments straight from your paycheck. Until then, that debt is just going to keep snowballing. Plus, it’ll totally tank your credit score if you ever try to get a loan down the road, so don't be reckless. 🙂
The standard interest rate for the overdraft in that package is 9.99% APR.
Since she never actually got served with the writ of execution, there’s a good chance they just posted it on the court's public notice board. If that happened, the 8-day window to appeal is already gone, making the ruling final. I’m worried she’s stuck—basically, her only move left might be paying up. And honestly, that debt has probably ballooned because of all the high interest rates and those hefty legal fees from the collection process. Since she inherited the house from her mom, she inherited all those debts too.
Just a heads-up though, the statute of limitations for sewage fees is 3 years.
Since you just got served with the writ of execution, it’s not even final yet. You've got an 8-day window to file an appeal. It only becomes official after that period passes, provided you don't actually file anything.
I get that, but how am I supposed to file for the statute of limitations when my mom hasn't received any actual resolution? They haven't sent anything regarding the garnishment or even the transfer order—those just went straight to the company. All she’s actually gotten is the notice that the garnishment was stayed. 🤷
The problem is, if we send a letter to the court claiming the statute of limitations, by the time they process it and issue a ruling, the company will have already docked her paycheck and handed the cash over to the creditor.
My mom just got hit with a garnishment notice at her job from Con Edison dating all the way back to 2001. After digging through the paperwork and piecing together what happened, here’s the timeline:
June 16, 2001: Con Edison files a petition with the court to seize assets and collect a monetary claim against the debtor. July 5, 2001: The court issues an enforcement order. My mom never actually received this notice. Then, absolutely nothing happens for 14 straight years. September 8, 2015: The court orders the enforcement to be suspended because the creditor didn't cover the costs for the marshal. January 18, 2016: The court issues a transfer order, basically telling my mom's employer they have to pay out the debt from the original order.
First off, I don't get how this works. If the enforcement was suspended in September 2015, how can they just pick it back up in January 2016? It's the exact same case and case number, so the creditor didn't even file a new petition. Also, shouldn't this whole thing be past the statute of limitations? Isn't the limit for final judgments ten years?
What should we do? Her company's accounting department says they have no choice but to follow the court order.